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| Certification Vendor: | CompTIA |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam |
| Exam Number: | CAS-005 |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Real Exam Qty: | Up to 90 |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Exam Price: | $512 USD |
| Related Certifications: | CompTIA SecurityX (formerly CASP+) |
| Passing Score: | Pass/Fail (no scaled score) |
| Exam Duration: | 165 minutes |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice, Performance-based |
| Sample Questions: | CompTIA CAS-005 Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online (via Pearson VUE) or In-person (at Pearson VUE testing centers) |
| Pre Condition: | Minimum of 10 years of general hands-on IT experience, including 5 years of broad hands-on IT security experience. Recommended knowledge of Network+, Security+, CySA+, Cloud+, and PenTest+ or equivalent. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.comptia.org/certifications/securityx |
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NEW QUESTION # 184
A security engineer is developing a solution to meet the following requirements?
* All endpoints should be able to establish telemetry with a SIEM.
* All endpoints should be able to be integrated into the XDR platform.
* SOC services should be able to monitor the XDR platform
Which of the following should the security engineer implement to meet the requirements?
Answer: A
Explanation:
To meet the requirements of having all endpoints establish telemetry with a SIEM, integrate into an XDR platform, and allow SOC services to monitor the XDR platform, the best approach is to implement Host Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS) and a host-based firewall. HIPS can provide detailed telemetry data to the SIEM and can be integrated into the XDR platform for comprehensive monitoring and response. The host- based firewall ensures that only authorized traffic is allowed, providing an additional layer of security.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Describes the roles of HIPS and host-based firewalls in endpoint security and their integration with SIEM and XDR platforms.
NIST Special Publication 800-94, "Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems (IDPS)": Highlights the capabilities of HIPS for security monitoring and incident response.
"Network Security Monitoring" by Richard Bejtlich: Discusses the integration of various security tools, including HIPS and firewalls, for effective security monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 185
A cybersecurity architect is reviewing the detection and monitoring capabilities for a global company that recently made multiple acquisitions. The architect discovers that the acquired companies use different vendors for detection and monitoring The architect's goal is to:
* Create a collection of use cases to help detect known threats
* Include those use cases in a centralized library for use across all of the companies Which of the following is the best way to achieve this goal?
Answer: A
Explanation:
To create a collection of use cases for detecting known threats and include them in a centralized library for use across multiple companies with different vendors, Sigma rules are the best option. Here's why:
Centralized Rule Management: By using Sigma rules, the cybersecurity architect can create a centralized library of detection rules that can be easily shared and implemented across different detection and monitoring systems used by the acquired companies. This ensures consistency in threat detection capabilities.
Ease of Use and Flexibility: Sigma provides a structured and straightforward format for defining detection logic. It allows for the easy creation, modification, and sharing of rules, facilitating collaboration and standardization across the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 186
A company plans to implement a research facility with Intellectual property data that should be protected The following is the security diagram proposed by the security architect
Which of the following security architect models is illustrated by the diagram?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The security diagram proposed by the security architect depicts a Zero Trust security model. Zero Trust is asecurity framework that assumes all entities, both inside and outside the network, cannot be trusted and must be verified before gaining access to resources.
Key Characteristics of Zero Trust in the Diagram:
Role-based Access Control: Ensures that users have access only to the resources necessary for their role.
Mandatory Access Control: Additional layer of security requiring authentication for access to sensitive areas.
Network Access Control: Ensures that devices meet security standards before accessing the network.
Multi-factor Authentication (MFA): Enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification.
This model aligns with the Zero Trust principles of never trusting and always verifying access requests, regardless of their origin.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-207, " Zero Trust Architecture "
" Implementing a Zero Trust Architecture, " Forrester Research
NEW QUESTION # 187
A company discovers intellectual property data on commonly known collaboration web applications that allow the use of slide templates. The systems administrator is reviewing the configurations of each tool to determine how to prevent this issue. The following security solutions are deployed:
CASB
SASE
WAF
EDR
Firewall
IDS
SIEM
DLP endpoints
Which of the following should the administrator do to address the issue?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 188
An organization is required to
* Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner
* Provide transparency.
* Comply with regulatory requirements
The organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future. Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and provide transparency in the event of a breach.
Why Communication Templates?
Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.
Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements.
Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the organization's credibility.
Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of preparedness and compliance:
A: Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.
B: Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.
D: Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide" ISO/IEC 27002:2013, "Information technology - Security techniques - Code of practice for information security controls"
NEW QUESTION # 189
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