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For your convenience, ExamDumpsVCE has prepared Canadian Securities Course Exam2 exam study material based on a real exam syllabus to help candidates go through their exams. Candidates who are preparing for the CSC2 Exam suffer greatly in their search for preparation material. You would not need anything else if you prepare for the exam with our CSC2 Exam Questions.
NEW QUESTION # 166
Which derivatives transaction has the greatest default risk?
Answer: D
Explanation:
An interest rate forward agreement (FRA) is an over-the-counter (OTC) derivative contract. Unlike exchange- traded derivatives, OTC contracts are not centrally cleared, meaning there is no intermediary to guarantee performance. This increases counterparty (default) risk, making FRAs inherently riskier than exchange-traded contracts.
* A. Individual investor buying shares on an exchange during the ex-rights period: This is a standard transaction involving equity securities, not derivatives, and carries no default risk.
* C. Exchange-traded equity option contract between an individual investor and a dealer: Exchange- traded derivatives are backed by a clearinghouse, which mitigates default risk.
* D. Individual investor entering a futures contract with an institutional investor: Futures contracts are also exchange-traded and centrally cleared, reducing default risk.
Reference:CSC Volume 1, Chapter 10, "The Role of Derivatives - Counterparty Risks in OTC Contracts" explains the higher default risk associated with OTC derivatives like FRAs.
NEW QUESTION # 167
What responsibility falls on the buy-side portfolio manager?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The buy-side portfolio manager is responsible for managing investments on behalf of institutional or retail clients. A critical responsibility is to provide the buy-side trader with pertinent market information and analysis of risks to ensure that trades are executed effectively and aligned with the investment strategy.
* Explanation of Options:
* A. Maintain Liquidity: Incorrect. This is more relevant to market makers or sell-side dealers who provide liquidity in the market.
* B. Contact with Dealers: Incorrect. While buy-side managers interact with dealers, their primary role is to strategize, not to maintain constant contact.
* C. Informing Traders: Correct. Buy-side managers analyze risks and market conditions and pass this information to traders for execution.
* D. Provide Information to Department Heads: Incorrect. This is not a core responsibility of buy- side portfolio managers.
:
CSC Volume 2, Chapter 27: Responsibilities of buy-side portfolio managers and their interactions with traders.
NEW QUESTION # 168
What responsibility falls on the buy-side portfolio manager?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Thebuy-side portfolio manageris responsible for managing investments on behalf of institutional or retail clients. A critical responsibility is to provide the buy-side trader withpertinent market information and analysis of risksto ensure that trades are executed effectively and aligned with the investment strategy.
* Explanation of Options:
* A. Maintain Liquidity: Incorrect. This is more relevant to market makers or sell-side dealers who provide liquidity in the market.
* B. Contact with Dealers: Incorrect. While buy-side managers interact with dealers, their primary role is to strategize, not to maintain constant contact.
* C. Informing Traders: Correct. Buy-side managers analyze risks and market conditions and pass this information to traders for execution.
* D. Provide Information to Department Heads: Incorrect. This is not a core responsibility of buy- side portfolio managers.
References:
* CSC Volume 2, Chapter 27: Responsibilities of buy-side portfolio managers and their interactions with traders.
NEW QUESTION # 169
A fixed-rate bond was originally priced at $100 and paid $5 per year in interest. Currently, the bond is trading at $102.75. What is the impact on the current yield of coupon of the bond as a result of the change in price?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The coupon rate of the bond remains fixed at 5%, as it is based on the bond's original par value of $100. The current yield, however, decreases because the bond's price has increased to $102.75. Current yield is calculated as:
Current Yield=Coupon PaymentCurrent Price\text{Current Yield} = \frac{\text{Coupon Payment}}{\text
{Current Price}}Current Yield=Current PriceCoupon Payment
Given:
* Coupon Payment = $5
* Current Price = $102.75
Current Yield=5102.75#4.87%\text{Current Yield} = \frac{5}{102.75} \approx 4.87\%Current Yield=102.
755#4.87%
* A. The coupon is higher than 5%: The coupon remains fixed at 5%.
* B. The current yield is higher than 5%: The current yield is lower than 5% due to the increased price.
* D. The coupon is lower than 5%: The coupon does not change with the bond's price.
Reference:CSC Volume 1, Chapter 7, "Bond Pricing - Current Yield Calculation" explains the relationship between price changes and current yield.
NEW QUESTION # 170
Tom sold some bonds in his RRSP and used the total $100,000 in proceeds to buy a 75% guaranteed segregated fund. Three years later, Tom died. At the time of his death, the market value of the segregated fund was $700,000. Assuming no interim withdrawal on market value reset, what is the death benefit payable from this investment?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Key Concepts:
A segregated fund with a guaranteed death benefit ensures that the investor (or their estate) receives at least a certain percentage of the initial investment in case of death. This percentage is applied to the original investment amount, and if the market value of the segregated fund at the time of death is lower than this guaranteed amount, the insurance company pays the shortfall.
Step-by-step Explanation:
* Initial Investment in the Segregated Fund: Tom invested $100,000 into a segregated fund with a
75% death benefit guarantee .
* Guaranteed amount = 75% × $100,000 = $75,000 .
* Market Value at the Time of Death: The market value of the segregated fund is $70,000 at the time of Tom ' s death.
* Shortfall Calculation: The guaranteed amount ($75,000) is greater than the market value ($70,000).
* Shortfall = $75,000 - $70,000 = $5,000 .
* Death Benefit Payable: Since the segregated fund guarantees at least $75,000, the insurance company will pay the shortfall of $5,000 to the estate.
The answer:
* Option A ($0): Incorrect; there is a shortfall between the guaranteed amount and the market value, so a payout will occur.
* Option B ($70,000): Incorrect; this is the market value, not the shortfall amount.
* Option C ($30,000): Incorrect; this value does not align with the 75% guarantee calculation.
* Option D ($5,000): Correct; this is the shortfall amount payable as the death benefit.
References to Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Study Materials:
* Volume 2, Chapter 22 - Segregated Funds
* Explains death benefit guarantees in segregated funds and how the shortfall is calculated.
* Volume 2, Chapter 24 - Canadian Taxation
* Highlights how RRSP investments, such as segregated funds, are treated upon the investor ' s death.
* Volume 2, Chapter 26 - Working with the Retail Client
* Discusses estate planning considerations, including the role of segregated funds in ensuring financial protection.
NEW QUESTION # 171
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