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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Risk Analysis and Risk Management | - Business continuity and disaster recovery
|
| Implementing Operational Capabilities, Procedures, and Training | - Security operations workflows
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| Cloud Security Policies and Procedures | - Cloud application security policies
|
| Identity and Access Management | - Cloud IAM controls
|
| Secure Cloud Service Models | - Cloud architecture security
|
| Legal, Compliance, and Ethical Concerns | - Compliance and governance
|
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NEW QUESTION # 13
A cloud consumer is scheduling a vulnerability assessment of a cloud service procured through a cloud broker. Who should the cloud consumer notify before beginning the assessment?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Before performing a vulnerability assessment on a cloud service, the cloud service provider (CSP) must be notified. Managing Cloud principles explain that CSPs own and operate the underlying infrastructure and define acceptable use and security testing conditions through their terms of service.
Notifying the CSP ensures that testing activities are authorized and do not violate contractual agreements or trigger security alerts. Unauthorized testing could be mistaken for malicious activity and lead to service disruption or legal consequences. CSP notification also allows coordination to minimize operational impact.
Although the service was procured through a broker, the CSP ultimately controls the environment being tested. Therefore, the cloud service provider is the correct entity to notify.
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which tier from Uptime Institute's Data Center Site Infrastructure Tier Standards is considered to be the most secure, reliable, and redundant in design and operational elements?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tier IV is the highest level in the Uptime Institute's Data Center Site Infrastructure Tier Standards and is considered the most secure, reliable, and redundant. Managing Cloud documentation explains that Tier IV data centers provide fault tolerance with multiple independent systems.
This tier includes fully redundant components, multiple active power and cooling distribution paths, and continuous operation even during maintenance or failure events. Tier IV environments are designed for mission-critical systems requiring maximum uptime.
Tier I through Tier III offer increasing levels of redundancy but do not provide full fault tolerance. Therefore, Tier IV is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 15
What should be done to data during the create phase of the data life cycle before being uploaded to the cloud?
Answer: A
Explanation:
During the create phase of the cloud data life cycle, data is first generated or collected by an organization. At this stage, it is essential to apply security controls before the data is transferred to the cloud environment.
The most effective control during this phase is encryption. Encrypting data ensures that the information is transformed into an unreadable format, protecting it from unauthorized access while it is being transmitted and stored in the cloud.
Managing Cloud principles emphasize that security must be applied as early as possible in the data life cycle to minimize exposure and reduce risk. If data is encrypted prior to upload, even if interception or unauthorized access occurs, the data remains protected and unusable without the appropriate decryption keys.
This approach also supports data confidentiality requirements and aligns with security best practices for handling sensitive and regulated information.
The other options do not provide adequate protection during the create phase. Storing or archiving data refers to later life cycle stages, while sharing data increases exposure rather than securing it. Therefore, encrypting data before uploading it to the cloud is a critical safeguard that ensures data confidentiality, supports compliance requirements, and strengthens overall cloud security posture.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which technology prevents the environment from being over-controlled with performance-degrading security measures for applications?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Runtime Application Self-Protection (RASP) prevents environments from being over-controlled with performance-degrading security measures. Managing Cloud guidance explains that RASP operates from within the application, monitoring behavior and responding to threats in real time.
Because RASP provides contextual awareness of application logic, it reduces the need for excessive external security controls such as heavy network filtering or constant scanning. This minimizes performance impact while maintaining effective protection against attacks like injection, unauthorized access, and misuse of application functions.
QoS manages traffic prioritization, DDoS describes an attack type, and IDS detects threats but does not prevent over-control. Therefore, RASP is the correct technology.
NEW QUESTION # 17
A governmental data storage organization plans to relocate its primary North American data center to a new property with larger acreage. Which defense should the organization deploy at this location to prevent vehicles from causing harm to the data center?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bollardsare physical barriers designed to prevent vehicles from ramming into or breaching secure facilities.
They are often placed at entrances, around perimeters, or in front of critical infrastructure like data centers.
Locks, cameras, and fences provide important physical security, but they cannot stop a high-speed vehicle from causing damage. Cameras record activity, fences create boundaries, and locks secure access points, but only bollards physically block or mitigate vehicle attacks.
Governmental and critical infrastructure sites commonly deploy bollards to protect against both accidental collisions and deliberate vehicle-borne attacks. Combined with layered security measures-such as surveillance and fencing-they enhance resilience against physical threats to sensitive data centers.
NEW QUESTION # 18
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