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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Objectives
Data and Evidence Management	- Evidence processing 1. Evidence lifecycle management 2. Validation and deduction rules - Data model design 1. Database mapping concepts 2. Case and evidence structure
Workflow and Rules Engine	- Workflow configuration 1. Process definitions and task management 2. Case lifecycle workflows - Business rules 1. Decision automation logic 2. Eligibility and entitlement rules
Cúram Platform Fundamentals	- Development environment setup 1. Build tools and runtime configuration 2. Database and environment configuration - Architecture and components overview 1. Cúram application architecture layers 2. Server and client interaction model
Integration and Deployment	- Deployment and maintenance 1. Performance tuning and troubleshooting 2. Application build and deployment process - System integration 1. Web services and APIs 2. External system integration patterns
Application Development	- Business logic implementation 1. Server interfaces and service layers 2. Entity and Evidence framework - User Interface (UIM) development 1. Pages, panels, and controls 2. Navigation and page flow design

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q181-Q186):

NEW QUESTION # 181
An incident response team identifies a malicious uniform resource locator (URL) associated with a required business process and performs the following activities:
* Access to the URL has been restricted only to the necessary users through firewall rules and Cloud Security Group rules.
* Additional monitoring has been enabled for traffic related to that site and the allowed users.
* All application servers that need to access that site have been patched with the latest security and software updates.
* Application owners have been notified of the severity and need to remediate this reported issue.
Which of the following best describes the overall mitigation the security team is performing?

A. Patching solutions
B. Attack surface management
C. Configuration management
D. Compensating controls

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 182
A server was recently compromised. A security analyst needs to collect artifacts for further analysis before disconnecting the server from the network.
Which of the following artifacts should the analyst collect first?

A. Netstat output
B. Hard disk
C. ShellBags
D. Address Resolution Protocol table

Answer: A

Explanation:
The analyst should collect the Netstat output first because current network-connection information is highly volatile and will change immediately when the server is disconnected. netstat-type evidence can identify active TCP/UDP connections, listening services, remote endpoints, and potentially the communication channels associated with an attacker or command-and-control infrastructure.
Digital-forensic acquisition follows the order of volatility : evidence most likely to disappear or change should be captured before more persistent artifacts. RFC 3227 explicitly directs investigators to proceed from volatile to less-volatile evidence and identifies information such as routing data, ARP cache, process state, memory-related information, and network state as highly time-sensitive.
The ARP table is also volatile and should be captured early, but the wording "before disconnecting the server from the network" makes active connection state particularly important because those sessions will terminate when network connectivity is removed. ShellBags are persistent forensic artifacts stored within Windows Registry data and can be collected later from disk. A hard-disk image is critical but comparatively nonvolatile and should follow acquisition of live state.
Therefore, live network-session information takes priority.
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Evidence Acquisition # Order of Volatility # Live Response # netstat # Network Connections # Forensic Preservation.

NEW QUESTION # 183
A vulnerability analyst conducts a security assessment on the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) security posture within the environment. The analyst issues the following command for the assessment:
nmap -p 3389 --script rdp* 10.0.0.0/24
The analyst receives responses, which are divided into one of the two categories, from 13 out of the 254 hosts:

Which of the following conclusions can the analyst make about the output on Category 2?

A. The systems are not joined to an Active Directory domain and are using Kerberos as an authentication method.
B. The systems are joined to an Active Directory domain and using New Technology LAN Manager (NTLM) as an authentication method.
C. The systems are not joined to an Active Directory domain and are using NTLM as an authentication method.
D. The systems are joined to an Active Directory domain and are using Kerberos as an authentication method.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The rdp-ntlm-info output identifies LOCALHOST as the domain and target name, indicating a local workgroup rather than Active Directory. The script output also confirms NTLM authentication.

NEW QUESTION # 184
When a system cannot meet the vulnerability management standard because it has reached end of life, which of the following should be listed in the action plan?

A. Risk score
B. Service-level agreement
C. Alert volume
D. Compensating controls

Answer: D

Explanation:
When a system has reached end of life and can no longer be patched or brought into compliance with vulnerability management standards, compensating controls should be documented in the action plan. These alternative safeguards help reduce the associated risk until the system can be replaced, upgraded, or otherwise remediated.

NEW QUESTION # 185
A security analyst is analyzing two vulnerabilities on a critical router. The analyst must choose only one to patch during this maintenance window. Given the following information:
Vulnerability 1 has not received a CVSS score. The vulnerability has the following characteristics:
- Must be logged in to the router, but elevated privileges are not required
- Trivial to exploit, but user interaction is needed
- Low impact to availability, but high impact to confidentiality and
integrity
Vulnerability 2 has a CVSS score of AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:L/I:L/A:H Which of the following conclusions should the analyst reach?

A. Patch Vulnerability 1 because it is easier to exploit and has a higher impact on confidentiality.
B. Patch Vulnerability 2 because it is easier to exploit, has a high impact on availability, and it is more likely to be exploited remotely.
C. Patch Vulnerability 1 because it has a higher overall impact when looking at confidentiality, integrity, and availability, and it requires lower privileges.
D. Patch Vulnerability 2 because it has a higher overall impact when looking at confidentiality, integrity, and availability, and it can be exploited by a privileged user.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerability 2 can be exploited remotely with low attack complexity and no user interaction, and it has a high impact on availability, which makes it more immediately disruptive to a critical router and a higher operational risk during this maintenance window.

NEW QUESTION # 186
......

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