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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Activities | - Professionalism
|
| Dimensions of Care | - Psychosocial Aspects
|
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NEW QUESTION # 289
A 17-year-old boy is brought by his 2 roommates to the emergency department (ED) after a party where he had been drinking and smoking cannabis. He reportedly was having a good time when he suddenly wanted to jump out of a window. His roommates describe him as "normal prior to a breakup with his girlfriend a week ago." He has since become anxious and unable to sleep. On examination, he is somnolent and appears intoxicated. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This adolescent exhibited acute suicidal behavior (attempted to jump out of a window), which is a psychiatric emergency. Regardless of intoxication or cause, such behavior mandates a safety-first approach: involuntary psychiatric assessment and protection from self-harm.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Suicide and Crisis Intervention" Section:
"Involuntary psychiatric admission is indicated when a patient poses a danger to themselves or others.
Suicidal ideation or attempts require immediate evaluation and monitoring." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-2: Suicide and Risk Management):
"Candidates must identify suicidal behavior and initiate appropriate action, including involuntary admission if necessary for safety." Observation (B) may miss the window for action. Parents (A) should be contacted but are not a substitute for admission. Chlordiazepoxide (C) is not first-line in this scenario.
NEW QUESTION # 290
A 16-year-old boy is brought to the office for examination, which reveals the lesion in the attached image and similar lesions on other parts of his body. You also notice multiple scattered subcutaneous tumors that he says have been there for a long time. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The presence of multiple cutaneous lesions along with numerous longstanding subcutaneous tumors is most consistent with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) . MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing classic dermatologic findings of NF1, which include multiple neurofibromas (soft, skin-colored subcutaneous nodules) and characteristic pigmented lesions such as cafe-au-lait macules and axillary or inguinal freckling.
These lesions typically develop during childhood or adolescence and increase in number over time.
Sarcoidosis can cause skin lesions but is not associated with multiple benign peripheral nerve sheath tumors.
Dermatofibromas are usually solitary, firm nodules rather than numerous soft tumors. Vitiligo presents as depigmented macules without subcutaneous masses. Lipomatosis involves multiple lipomas but lacks the associated pigmentary skin findings seen in NF1.
NF1 is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation of the NF1 gene. Diagnosis is clinical based on established criteria. Recognition is important because patients require surveillance for complications such as optic gliomas, learning disabilities, skeletal abnormalities, and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors.
NEW QUESTION # 291
A 69-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of a painful right knee. On history, he denies any trauma or similar previous episodes. Examination reveals effusion of the right knee that is warm to the touch. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
The first step in evaluating a new, hot, swollen joint is arthrocentesis to rule out septic arthritis and crystal arthropathy. Joint aspiration provides fluid for microscopy, culture, and crystal analysis, which guides definitive diagnosis and treatment.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Rheumatology, Monoarthritis:
"Joint aspiration is the most important first step in evaluating monoarthritis. Septic arthritis must be ruled out before initiating any therapy." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Rheumatology:
"Candidates should perform joint aspiration in the presence of acute monoarthritis to differentiate between septic arthritis, gout, and other causes." Radiography (A) and serum uric acid (B) do not establish cause acutely. Empiric antibiotics (D) and NSAIDs (E) should only be started after ruling out septic arthritis.
NEW QUESTION # 292
A 3-year-old boy is brought to your office because his daycare teachers are concerned about his language development. His parents speak both English and French at home, and he can say around 15 words combined in both languages. His history reveals that he has minimal interest in playing with other children. Which one of the following is most appropriate?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A limited vocabulary (fewer than 50 words by age 2-3 years) and reduced social interaction (limited interest in peers) raise concern for autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Screening for ASD is the most appropriate next step.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Development and Behaviour:
"Red flags for autism include delayed language, limited social reciprocity, and poor peer interaction.
Screening should be initiated early when clinical signs are present."
MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Developmental Disorders:
"Candidates must identify key signs of ASD and initiate appropriate screening and early intervention." Multilingual households do not typically cause such delays (E is incorrect). ADHD (B) presents with attention
/hyperactivity issues, not language/social delay. Reassurance (A) is inappropriate. Neurology referral (C) may follow but is not first-line.
NEW QUESTION # 293
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, presents with a positive pregnancy test. Her previous pregnancy was associated with preeclampsia, and she delivered a 1000 g boy at 34 weeks ' gestation. Her blood pressure is
130/86 mm Hg. Which one of the following is the best recommendation for this pregnancy?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Accurate dating is critical in pregnancies at high risk for preeclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction.
First-trimester ultrasound is used to establish gestational age, which guides monitoring and interventions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, High-Risk Pregnancy:
"In women with a history of preeclampsia, early and accurate dating allows for appropriate fetal surveillance and timely delivery." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Prenatal Care:
"Candidates should recognize the importance of accurate pregnancy dating in high-risk pregnancies." Prophylactic labetalol (E) is not indicated in normotensive patients. Genetic testing (A, B) is not appropriate unless additional risk factors are present. Bed rest (D) is not evidence-based for preeclampsia prevention.
NEW QUESTION # 294
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