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AAPC CPC Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:AAPC (American Academy of Professional Coders)
Exam Name:Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam
Exam Number:CPC
Certificate Validity Period:3 years
Exam Price:$425 (1 attempt), $499 (2 attempts)
Passing Score:70%
Exam Format:Scenario-based, Multiple-choice, Open-book
Real Exam Qty:100
Exam Duration:240 minutes
Related Certifications:CPC-P
CPCO
CRC
CPMA
Available Languages:English
Recommended Training:AAPC CPC Training Courses
Exam Registration:AAPC Official Registration
Sample Questions:AAPC CPC Sample Questions
Exam Way:Online proctored or in-person at authorized testing centers
Pre Condition:No mandatory prerequisites; recommended knowledge of medical terminology, anatomy, coding systems; AAPC membership required to register
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.aapc.com/certifications/cpc

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 2
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 3
  • Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.
Topic 4
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 5
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 6
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 7
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 8
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 9
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 10
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 11
  • Cardiovascular System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and addresses services related to the heart, arteries, and veins. It involves the coding of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, including catheterizations, bypasses, and repairs.:
Topic 12
  • Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
  • M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
  • exam components per current CMS guidelines.
Topic 13
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 14
  • Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.
Topic 15
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 16
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q176-Q181):

NEW QUESTION # 176
(What is the medical term for the study of the kidney?)

Answer: B

Explanation:
"Nephr/o" is the combining form meaningkidney, and "-logy" meansstudy of. Therefore,nephrologyis the medical specialty focused on the kidneys-normal kidney function, kidney diseases, and their medical management. In CPC-style terminology questions, look for the body-system root first (nephr = kidney) and then confirm the suffix. This differs fromurology, which is a surgical specialty addressing the urinary tract and male reproductive system. Endocrinology relates to hormones and glands, neurology relates to the nervous system, and cardiology relates to the heart. A quick word-building check helps avoid distractors:
nephrology = kidney; cardiology = heart; neurology = nerves/brain; endocrinology = endocrine glands. On the CPC exam, recognizing common combining forms (nephr/o, ren/o) and suffix patterns (-logy, -itis, -ectomy) is a frequent testing strategy, so anchoring on "nephr" reliably identifies the correct specialty.


NEW QUESTION # 177
A woman who is 19 weeks pregnant is taken to the hospital from her doctor's office due to the detection of no fetal heartbeat and the death of the fetus. Due to the stage of pregnancy, labor is initiated, and the fetus is delivered.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for the delivery of the fetus on the maternal record?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Procedure Coding (CPT):
59821 - Induced abortion, by vaginal suppository, amniotic fluid injection, or other medical means Used for fetal demise at โ‰ฅ14 weeks gestation Labor was medically induced and fetus delivered Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):
O36.4XX0 - Maternal care for intrauterine death, not applicable or unspecified Correct maternal record diagnosis Z3A.19 - 19 weeks gestation Required per ICD-10-CM guidelines for obstetric encounters Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A / D - ICD-9 code (002.1) is invalid
C - Missing required gestational age code


NEW QUESTION # 178
View MR 004397
MR 004397
Operative Report
Preoperative Diagnosis: Calculi of the gallbladder
Postoperative Diagnosis: Calculi of the gallbladder, chronic cholecystitis Procedure: Cholecystectomy Indications: The patient is a 50-year-old woman who has a history of RUQ pain, which ultrasound revealed to be multiple gallstones. She presents for removal of her gallbladder.
Procedure: The patient was brought to the OR and prepped and draped in a normal sterile fashion. After adequate general endotracheal anesthesia was obtained, a trocar was placed and C02 was insufflated into the abdomen until an adequate pneumoperitoneum was achieved. A laparoscope was placed at the umbilicus and the gallbladder and liver bed were visualized. The gallbladder was enlarged and thickened, and there was evidence of chronic inflammatory changes. Two additional ports were placed and graspers were used to free the gallbladder from the liver bed with a combination of sharp dissection and electrocautery. Cystic artery and duct are clipped. Dye is injected in the gallbladder. Cholangiography revealed no intraluminal defect or obstruction. Gallbladder is dissected from the liver bed. The scope and trocars are removed.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 179
(Full Case:Patient:V. Bowen.Physician:C.S., MD.Reason for admission:Abdominal pain.HPI:admitted this morning; sudden onset RUQ pain began ~4:00 p.m. yesterday; started while eating; 8/10; chills/sweating
/nausea; no vomiting/diarrhea; last BM 2:00 p.m. yesterday; unable to pass stool or gas since; abdominal distention; poor sleep; prior similar episodes relieved by gas tablets but not this time; no discolored stool/urine.
PMH:HTN (losartan; missed dose).PSH:bunion surgery right foot.FH:HTN.SH:no smoking/alcohol.Meds:
losartan daily.Allergies:NKDA.ROS:nausea, no emesis; no flatus/stool since yesterday; no weight change; no SOB/chest pain; no jaundice; no urinary frequency/urgency.PE:alert/oriented x3; obvious abdominal discomfort. Vitals 139/100, pulse 100, RR 16, temp 36.4. HEENT normal; CV regular; lungs clear. Abdomen:
+BS, soft but very tender; worst RUQ;Murphy's sign; guarding and rebound (worse with palpation).
Extremities trace edema.Labs ordered/reviewed:CMP with abnormal LFT/bili; CBC WBC 9.9; etc.Final assessment:RUQ abdominal pain,rule out cholecystitis.Plan:NPO; morphine IV (controlled substance); IV NS
150 cc/hr; abdominal ultrasound and HIDA ordered; consider surgical consult based on results.Question:What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?)

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is aninitial hospital service(admitted this morning; "reason for admission"), so the correct E/M family isinitial hospital inpatient/observation carerather than subsequent hospital care (99232/99233). The encounter includes a detailed history, comprehensive exam elements focused on abdominal pathology, and meaningful initial management: NPO, IV fluids,IV morphine, ordering and reviewing lab panels, and ordering imaging (ultrasound and HIDA) with possible surgical consultation-supporting at leastmoderate MDM, consistent with99222in typical CPC exam mapping. Diagnosis coding: "rule out cholecystitis" is not a confirmed inpatient discharge diagnosis in the provided note; at this stage the physician's final assessment isRUQ abdominal pain, rule out cholecystitis. Therefore, you report thesign/symptomcodeR10.11 (right upper quadrant pain)rather thanK81.9(cholecystitis, unspecified), because cholecystitis is not established as definitive in the note. Option A correctly pairs an initial hospital E/M code with the symptom diagnosis supported by documentation.


NEW QUESTION # 180
A 78-year-old patient experiencing intermittent asthma with exacerbation is in her pulmonologist's office for a pulmonary function test. The pulmonologist tests for spirometry, vital capacity, breathing capacity, and flow volume capturing the measurements before and after administering a bronchodilator.
What CPTand ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient underwent a pulmonary function test that included spirometry, vital capacity, breathing capacity, and flow volume measurements before and after bronchodilator administration.
CPTCode 94060 is for spirometry, including the bronchodilator responsiveness testing, which involves capturing pre- and post-bronchodilator measurements. This code accurately reflects the testing performed.
CPTCode 94010 is for spirometry testing without bronchodilator, which might be considered redundant in this case since 94060 encompasses spirometry testing with and without bronchodilator. However, some practices may code both, but generally, 94060 alone should suffice.
2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:
ICD-10-CM Code J45.901 is used for unspecified asthma with acute exacerbation. This code is appropriate given that the diagnosis indicates intermittent asthma with exacerbation.
J45.21 represents mild intermittent asthma without the specification of exacerbation, making it less accurate than J45.901 in this context.
3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 94070 (options B and C) is for bronchospasm provocation testing, which does not apply to standard pulmonary function testing with bronchodilator responsiveness.
Option D includes J45.21, which does not capture the exacerbation aspect and is therefore incorrect.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to AAPC guidelines, 94060 should be used when pre- and post-bronchodilator spirometry is performed, and J45.901 is appropriate for asthma with exacerbation.
Therefore, the correct answer is A. 94060, 94010, J45.901.


NEW QUESTION # 181
......

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