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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Activities | 50% | - Communication - Management - Professional Behaviours - Psychosocial Aspects |
| Topic 2: Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Assessment and Diagnosis - Chronic Care - Acute Care - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention |
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NEW QUESTION # 35
A 42-year-old man presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding his anxiety. He lost his job 1 year ago.
Since then, he constantly thinks about what happened, trying to understand what went wrong and how he could fix it or prevent it in the future. He is unable to sleep because of this. He has become socially isolated and when he does see friends, he worries constantly that he may say something hurtful. He wishes he could get past what happened and find another job but feels consumed by the fear that he may offend someone in the future. On history, his symptoms did not respond to escitalopram, sertraline, fluvoxamine, or venlafaxine, all at maximum tolerated doses. Which one of the following medications is the most appropriate?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient likely has treatment-resistant obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), with classicsymptoms of rumination, excessive guilt, and fear of causing harm. Clomipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant with strong serotonergic activity, is effective in treatment-resistant OCD and is often used after failure of multiple SSRIs or SNRIs.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, OCD:
"Clomipramine is a first-line tricyclic antidepressant for OCD, particularly after failed SSRI/SNRI trials. It is effective due to potent serotonergic action." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > OCD and Anxiety Disorders:
"Candidates must identify treatment strategies for resistant OCD, including the role of clomipramine and augmentation therapy." Quetiapine (C) may be used as augmentation. Paroxetine (E) is another SSRI. Vortioxetine (A) and amitriptyline (D) are not first-line or preferred for OCD.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A 39-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, aborta 0, presents with concerns that a friend has recently suffered from postpartum psychosis. She wonders if she is likely to suffer this disorder following delivery of her 2nd child. Which one of the following is most likely to increase your patient's risk?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Postpartum psychosis is strongly associated with bipolar disorder and other mood disorders. A personal or family history of bipolar disorder significantly increases the risk. It typically presents within the first 2 weeks postpartum and is a psychiatric emergency.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Postpartum Psychiatric Disorders":
"Risk factors for postpartum psychosis include personal or family history of bipolar disorder or postpartum psychosis." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Mood Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize risk factors for postpartum psychiatric illness, particularly the association with bipolar spectrum disorders." Advanced maternal age (A), multiparity (B), and panic disorder (D) do not significantly increase the risk of postpartum psychosis.
NEW QUESTION # 37
An 18-month-old girl is brought in with a 3-day history of frequently passing loose stools. The stools are not bloody, but when she passes the stools, she is in obvious pain. She started vomiting earlier today, but she is still wetting diapers. On examination, she is mildly dehydrated but active and alert. Physical examination findings are otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the best management of this patient's case?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This child has acute viral gastroenteritis with mild dehydration. She remains alert, active, and continues to produce urine, indicating mild volume depletion. According to MCCQE objectives and pediatric guidelines, the first-line management of mild to moderate dehydration due to gastroenteritis is oral rehydration therapy (ORT) using a commercially prepared oral rehydration solution (ORS). ORS contains the appropriate balance of glucose and electrolytes to promote sodium and water absorption via the sodium-glucose cotransporter in the intestine. Antidiarrheal agents such as loperamide are contraindicated in young children due to risk of adverse effects and limited benefit. Withholding food until diarrhea resolves is unnecessary; early refeeding with an age-appropriate diet is recommended once rehydration begins. Apple juice and chicken broth do not provide the correct electrolyte composition and may worsen diarrhea due to high osmolarity. Routine lactose restriction is not indicated unless persistent symptoms suggest secondary lactose intolerance. Early ORT reduces the need for intravenous fluids and hospital admission.
NEW QUESTION # 38
During an office visit, your 14-year-old patient requests a prescription for oral contraceptives. The province where you are working does not have a statutory age of consent. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Canada, a minor may consent to medical care if the physician believes they have the capacity to understand the nature, benefits, and risks. This is known as the "mature minor doctrine." Capacity is based on understanding, not age.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Consent and Capacity" Section:
"A minor may consent to treatment if they demonstrate sufficient maturity and understanding. It is the physician's responsibility to assess capacity prior to prescribing." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-3: Consent and Confidentiality):
"Candidates must assess the patient's ability to understand and make informed decisions, regardless of age." Prescribing without assessment (B) is premature. Reporting to child services (A) is only necessary if there are signs of abuse or coercion. Parental involvement (C) is not mandatory. Refusal based on age (E) contradicts legal and ethical practice.
NEW QUESTION # 39
A 70-year-old woman had a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy 2 days ago.
On examination today, her vital signs are as follows: She has been immobile since her operation. She is fatigued but is tolerating a full diet. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's fever?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Postoperative fever on day 1-2 is commonly caused by atelectasis, particularly in patients who are immobile.
It is considered a self-limited cause of early fever after surgery and often resolves with mobilization and pulmonary exercises.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Surgery, Postoperative Complications:
"The '5 W's' of postoperative fever: Wind (atelectasis), Water (UTI), Wound (infection), Walking (DVT), and Wonder drugs. Atelectasis typically occurs in the first 48 hours and is due to hypoventilation or pain- limited breathing." MCCQE1 Objectives - Surgery > Postoperative Management:
"Candidates must recognize timing-specific causes of postoperative fever. Atelectasis is the most likely cause within the first 48 hours." PE (B) can cause fever but is less likely without respiratory compromise. Wound infection (C) and bowel trauma (D) typically present later or with more specific symptoms. Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis (A) usually presents later and with more systemic signs.
NEW QUESTION # 40
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