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ECCouncil 312-97 Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:EC-Council
Exam Name:EC-Council Certified DevSecOps Engineer (ECDE) Exam
Exam Number:312-97
Available Languages:English
Exam Format:Multiple-choice questions (MCQ)
Related Certifications:EC-Council DevSecOps Essentials (DSE)
Passing Score:70% (may vary 60–85% depending on exam version)
Exam Duration:240 minutes
Real Exam Qty:100
Recommended Training:EC-Council DevSecOps Essentials (DSE)
EC-Council DevSecOps Engineer Training (E|CDE)
Exam Registration:EC-Council ECDE Official Page
Pearson VUE EC-Council Exams
Sample Questions:ECCouncil 312-97 Sample Questions
Exam Way:Online proctored exam via EC-Council Exam Portal / Pearson VUE
Pre Condition:Basic understanding of application security concepts; enrollment in EC-Council DevSecOps training recommended
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.eccouncil.org/train-certify/certified-devsecops-engineer-ecde/

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ECCouncil 312-97 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • DevSecOps Pipeline - Code Stage: This module discusses secure coding practices and security integration within the development process and IDE. Developers learn to write secure code using static code analysis tools and industry-standard secure coding guidelines.
Topic 2
  • DevSecOps Pipeline - Release and Deploy Stage: This module explains maintaining security during release and deployment through secure techniques and infrastructure as code security. It covers container security tools, release management, and secure configuration practices for production transitions.
Topic 3
  • Introduction to DevSecOps: This module covers foundational DevSecOps concepts, focusing on integrating security into the DevOps lifecycle through automated, collaborative approaches. It introduces key components, tools, and practices while discussing adoption benefits, implementation challenges, and strategies for establishing a security-first culture.

ECCouncil EC-Council Certified DevSecOps Engineer (ECDE) Sample Questions (Q20-Q25):

NEW QUESTION # 20
Sophia Adams, a DevSecOps Engineer at CloudSecure Solutions, is responsible for securing sensitive credentials used in the company's CI/CD pipeline. To ensure secure storage and retrieval of secrets, she decides to integrate Azure Key Vault with Jenkins. She Creates an Azure Key Vault and stores credentials securely, Installs the Azure Key Vault plugin in Jenkins and Navigates to the Jenkins &quot;Configure System&quot; section and adds the Azure Key Vault URL. Now, Sophia needs to ensure that Jenkins can securely access secrets stored in Azure Key Vault to complete the integration. Which of the following should Sophia do next?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Jenkins needs an identity to access Key Vault: Sophia must create an Azure Service Principal (app registration) and grant it access policies/RBAC on the Key Vault, then configure those credentials in the Jenkins Azure Key Vault integration. Manual copying defeats secret management, restarting Jenkins fetches nothing by itself, and Jenkins RBAC cannot authenticate to Azure.


NEW QUESTION # 21
During the final testing phase of a web application, a DevSecOps engineer receives an Invicti scan report via Azure Pipelines. The report highlights a high-risk SQL injection vulnerability in the application's login form. Prior to the scan, the engineer had configured the CI/CD pipeline by using a PowerShell script generated by Invicti's Script Generator, ensuring that the User ID and API Token were correctly set as pipeline variables. To effectively address the vulnerability, what should the engineer do next?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct response to a confirmed high-risk SQL injection finding is to remediate the vulnerable query in the code (e.g., using parameterized queries) and then re-run the pipeline scan to verify the fix. Disabling checks, reverting versions, or regenerating the PowerShell script leaves the vulnerability in place or ignores it.


NEW QUESTION # 22
Marcus Alberts, a DevSecOps engineer at a Berlin automotive supplier, must ensure that every artifact promoted from the Build stage to the Release stage is digitally signed, and that the deployment pipeline refuses to deploy any artifact whose signature cannot be verified. What security principle is Marcus enforcing?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Artifact or code signing applies a cryptographic signature to a build artifact so that its authenticity and integrity can be verified before deployment; enforcing signature verification as a pipeline gate prevents unsigned or tampered artifacts from being deployed, which is exactly what Marcus is implementing. Least privilege refers to limiting user or service permissions to the minimum necessary for their function, not artifact integrity verification. Network segmentation divides a network into isolated zones to limit lateral movement, unrelated to artifact signing. Data masking obscures sensitive data values (e.g., in non-production environments) and has nothing to do with verifying artifact authenticity. Because Marcus's control specifically concerns signing and verifying artifacts before deployment, artifact/code signing and verification is correct.


NEW QUESTION # 23
Alex, a DevSecOps engineer, is conducting a security review of a newly developed web application. To ensure compliance with industry standards, he wants to prioritize fixing vulnerabilities that attackers most commonly exploit. He also needs guidance on how to secure the application against threats like SQL injection, broken authentication, and sensitive data exposure. Which security standard should Alex refer to?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The OWASP Top 10 is the standard awareness document listing the most critical and most commonly exploited web application security risks, including SQL injection, broken authentication, and sensitive data exposure. It gives Alex both the prioritization of what attackers exploit most and guidance on how to secure the application against those threats. CVE is only a dictionary of vulnerability identifiers, CERT is a coordination/research center, and IEC 62443 targets industrial automation and control systems, not web applications.


NEW QUESTION # 24
Scott Morrison is working as a senior DevSecOps engineer at SUTRE SOFT Pvt. Ltd. His organization develops software and applications for IoT devices. Scott created a user story; he then created abuser stories under the user story. After that, he created threat scenarios under the abuser story, and then he created test cases for the threat scenarios. After defining the YAML, Scott would like to push the user-story driven threat model to the ThreatPlaybook server. Which of the following command Scott should use?

Answer: D

Explanation:
ThreatPlaybook uses the playbook apply feature command to push user-story-driven threat models to the server. The -f flag specifies the path to the YAML file containing the defined user stories, abuser stories, and threat scenarios, while the -p flag specifies the target project. Option C correctly combines these parameters. The -y flag is invalid in this context, and options that misuse -t instead of -p do not correctly identify the project destination. Executing this command during the Plan stage enables teams to integrate threat modeling early, ensuring security risks are identified and addressed before development and deployment proceed.


NEW QUESTION # 25
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