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>> Real CCDS-O Exam Questions <<
To save resources of our customers, we offer Real CCDS-O Exam Questions that are enough to master for CCDS-O certification exam. Our ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Dumps are designed by experienced industry professionals and are regularly updated to reflect the latest changes in the Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient exam content.
NEW QUESTION # 113
A patient is seen by an endocrinologist to manage his poorly controlled diabetes with peripheral neuropathy and claudication. The patient has had several toes amputated in prior years and currently has a non-healing ulcer on the left foot. The patient's additional chronic conditions consist of the following: HF, CAD, COPD, history of prostate cancer, arthritis, depression, and sleep apnea. Which of the following chronic conditions should the CDI specialist consider for future education regarding RAF impact with the endocrinologist?
Answer: A
Explanation:
For RAF impact in the CMS-HCC model, the most valuable provider education targets are conditions that (1) map to HCCs or interact with HCC hierarchies, and (2) are clearly within the specialist's scope to assess and manage during visits. In this scenario, the endocrinologist is actively treating diabetes and its complications. Diabetes with peripheral neuropathy/vascular disease plus an active non-healing foot ulcer reflects significant diabetic disease burden and often supports additional required coding (e.g., diabetes complication code plus a separate site/severity ulcer code). The history of toe amputations is also important because amputation status can represent ongoing complexity, affects care planning (risk of recurrent ulcer/infection), and may contribute to risk capture depending on the model and associated complications. By contrast, CAD/COPD/HF may not be evaluated by the endocrinologist at the visit, "A1C" is a lab value (not a diagnosis), and "history of prostate cancer" generally does not risk-adjust like active malignancy. Therefore, educating on documenting diabetes, amputation status, and ulcer details best supports RAF accuracy.
NEW QUESTION # 114
A patient presents to the PCP's office with LLE edema and pain for 3 days. The problem list indicates morbid obesity and a history of DVT. Vital signs are T 37.9, P 76, R 12, BP 142/88, BMI 46. Documentation states: "Patient presents with LLE edema, increased pain, and hx of DVT. Sedentary lifestyle and contraindications to anticoagulation therapy. LLE warm to touch, 3+ edema from ankle to knee. Pedal pulses 2+ on L and 3+ on R." Doppler exam indicates DVT. The PCP should be queried for which of the following diagnoses?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The documented indicators strongly support two clarification needs that affect accurate outpatient reporting. First, morbid obesity is supported by an objective BMI of 46, and outpatient CDI practice emphasizes ensuring obesity class is clearly documented as a diagnosis (not only implied by BMI) and that it is clinically relevant to care planning and risk (e.g., contributes to thrombotic risk, impacts treatment options). Second, the Doppler "indicates DVT," but the record also notes a history of DVT, creating ambiguity about status-is this an acute new/recurrent DVT, a chronic/residual thrombosis, or a prior condition now re-identified? Clarifying acuity/status is essential because it changes code selection and clinical severity representation and supports medical necessity for management decisions, especially given "contraindications to anticoagulation." Hypertensive urgency is not supported (BP 142/88 without crisis features), and "hypercoagulability" is not established by the provided indicators. Therefore, querying for morbid obesity and DVT status is most appropriate.
NEW QUESTION # 115
Using the table above, which of the following HCC(s) should be assigned for documentation stating the patient has resolving AKI due to ATN, creatinine levels slowly returning to baseline, and CKD- stage 3-4?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In HCC risk adjustment, chronic kidney disease (CKD) is captured by stage-based HCCs that are hierarchical-only the highest supported CKD stage in the hierarchy is counted for RAF when multiple stages (or a range) are referenced. The documentation includes "CKD - stage 3-4," which indicates the patient's baseline CKD severity falls somewhere between stage 3 and stage 4. When selecting from the provided table, stage 4 maps to HCC 327 and is higher than stage 3 categories (HCC 328 for stage 3B and HCC 329 for stage 3 except 3B). AKI due to ATN describes an acute process and does not replace the need to capture baseline CKD stage when it is clinically relevant and documented. Outpatient CDI best practice would be to query the provider to specify the exact CKD stage (since "3-4" is imprecise), but when forced to choose from the hierarchy shown, the correct HCC assignment based on the highest stated stage in the documented range is HCC 327 (CKD stage 4).
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which of the following statements is true regarding RADV reviews?
Answer: C
Explanation:
RADV (Risk Adjustment Data Validation) is an audit process used to validate that risk-adjusting diagnoses submitted for payment are supported by compliant medical record documentation. A foundational requirement is that the record is properly authenticated by an acceptable provider-meaning the documentation must be attributable to the treating clinician through a valid signature. In compliant documentation standards emphasized in outpatient CDI education, acceptable authentication may be a traditional hand-written signature or an electronic signature/attestation that meets organizational and regulatory policy. Option B is not correct because diagnoses do not have to appear only on a facesheet or "final diagnosis" list; they may be supported within the body of the note (assessment/plan, problem-based charting, or other authenticated sections) as long as they are clearly documented and clinically supported. Options A and D are not reliably true statements in a general RADV context because RADV focuses on diagnoses supported by appropriate provider documentation and acceptable encounter record criteria; "technician-assigned" diagnoses are not acceptable, and radiology documentation alone may not meet all validation expectations depending on the program's rules and encounter context.
NEW QUESTION # 117
If a patient is being seen for follow-up and the documentation indicates that the patient was admitted to the hospital 28 days ago with an acute cerebral infarction with remaining right-sided weakness, which of the following diagnoses would be MOST appropriate?
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the outpatient follow-up setting, when the acute stroke event has occurred in the recent past and the patient is now being evaluated for residual deficits, documentation and coding should focus on the sequelae (late effects) rather than re-coding the acute infarction itself-unless the provider clearly states the stroke is still in the acute phase and being actively treated as such. ACDIS outpatient CDI principles stress selecting the diagnosis that best reflects the reason for today's encounter and the condition being assessed/managed. Here, the ongoing clinical issue driving follow-up care is the persistent neurologic deficit (right-sided weakness/hemiparesis) after the cerebral infarction. Option C is the most specific and clinically accurate because it captures (1) the relationship to the prior cerebral infarction ("following cerebral infarction") and (2) laterality and dominance ("right dominant side"), which improves code specificity and reflects functional impact. Option A incorrectly keeps the focus on an unspecified cerebral infarction rather than the residual deficit, and option D is too nonspecific compared with a clearly described hemiparesis.
NEW QUESTION # 118
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