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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Reporting and Communication	16%	- Vulnerability Management Reporting and Communication 1. Stakeholder identification and communication 2. Inhibitors to remediation 3. Metrics and key performance indicators 4. Vulnerability scan reports 5. Risk scorecards 6. Compliance findings 7. Action plans - Security Operations and Incident Response Reporting and Communication 1. Operational security awareness 2. Post-incident reporting 3. Shift and incident handover 4. Executive summary 5. Metrics and key performance indicators 6. Incident declaration and escalation 7. Communication plan 8. Internal threat intelligence report
Vulnerability Management	26%	- Control Types, Risks, and Vulnerability Management 1. Policies, governance, and service-level objectives 2. Control functions 3. Risk concepts 4. Application security 5. Control types 6. Third-party risk 7. Risk management strategies - Vulnerability Scanning Methods 1. Planning considerations 2. Discovery 3. Asset inventory 4. Security baseline scanning 5. Scan types - Vulnerability Prioritization and Mitigation 1. Context awareness 2. Mitigation strategies 3. Scoring methods 4. Validation of remediation 5. Vulnerability prioritization criteria - Vulnerability Assessment Tools 1. Vulnerability scanners 2. Web application scanners 3. Network scanning and mapping 4. Multipurpose tools 5. Breach attack simulation tools 6. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools
Incident Response and Management	24%	- Attack Methodology Frameworks 1. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis 2. MITRE ATT&CK 3. Cyber Kill Chain - Incident Response Process 1. Preparation 2. Detection 3. Recovery 4. Post-incident activities 5. Analysis 6. Containment 7. Eradication - Incident Response Techniques 1. Alerts, notifications, and triage 2. Timeline, severity, impact, and prioritization 3. Root cause analysis 4. Playbooks and roles 5. Isolation and escalation 6. Remediation and verification 7. Training and exercises 8. Log collection, correlation, and enrichment 9. Incident response and communication plans 10. Restoration 11. Corrective action development 12. Evidence gathering and preservation
Security Operations	34%	- Tools for Determining Malicious Activity 1. Email analysis 2. Domain and IP reputation 3. Decoding and parsing 4. Packet analysis 5. Sandboxing 6. Log analysis and SIEM 7. User and entity behavior analysis 8. Endpoint security 9. Programming and scripting languages 10. File formats 11. Threat intelligence platforms 12. File analysis 13. Pattern recognition and suspicious command analysis - Indicators of Potential Malicious Activity 1. Social engineering attacks 2. Identity-based indicators 3. Unauthorized configuration 4. Host-related indicators 5. Email-related attacks 6. Network-related indicators 7. Application-related indicators 8. Cloud-related indicators - Threat Intelligence and Threat Hunting 1. Indicators of compromise 2. Tactics, techniques, and procedures 3. Threat modeling 4. Threat actors 5. Cyber deception 6. Threat mapping 7. Collection methods and sources 8. Confidence-level impacts - Artificial Intelligence in Security Operations 1. AI use cases 2. AI risks 3. AI governance - System and Network Architecture in Security Operations 1. Encryption techniques 2. Logging concepts 3. Identity and access management 4. Operating system concepts 5. Network architecture concepts 6. Data protection concepts 7. Critical infrastructure concepts 8. Infrastructure and system architecture concepts 9. Device management concepts - Efficiency and Process Improvement in Security Operations 1. Automation and orchestration 2. Standardize processes 3. Streamline operations 4. Data enrichment 5. Technology and tool integration

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q85-Q90):

NEW QUESTION # 85
A vulnerability analyst conducts a web application scan on an asset sitting behind a load balancer configured as a pass through:
http://10.203.20.10
The analyst launches the Zed Attack Proxy (ZAP) utility, conducts a scan, and receives the following alert:

Which of the following should the analyst propose as a remediation to the finding while keeping the site operational?

A. Ensure the load balancer is configured with online certificate status protocol (OCSP) stapling.
B. Ensure the web server host-based firewall is configured to block HTTP incoming traffic.
C. Ensure the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) endpoint is protected with a network firewall with geo- blocking.
D. Ensure the web application is configured to suppress the "Server" header.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The ZAP finding concerns information disclosure through the HTTP Server response header , so the correct remediation is to suppress or minimize that header while leaving the website operational. OWASP ZAP maintains specific alerts for servers that disclose the web-server application or version through this response field. The version-disclosure rule is categorized as information exposure because detailed server identification can assist reconnaissance and vulnerability targeting.
Removing unnecessary product and version information reduces information available to an attacker without interrupting legitimate HTTP requests. This directly satisfies the requirement to remediate the finding while maintaining service availability.
Geo-blocking does not correct server-version disclosure and may unnecessarily deny legitimate users based on location. OCSP stapling relates to certificate-revocation status in TLS and is irrelevant to an HTTP server- header disclosure. Blocking incoming HTTP entirely would make the current endpoint unavailable, contradicting the requirement to keep the site operational.
The remediation principle is therefore minimize externally exposed implementation details while preserving application functionality . Server banners are not themselves an exploit, but they can improve an attacker's ability to fingerprint technology and select applicable exploits.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Web Application Scanning # OWASP ZAP # Information Disclosure # HTTP Server Headers # Banner Suppression # Secure Configuration.

NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following best describes the reason a root cause analysis is an important part of the incident response process?

A. Response teams can use the analysis to isolate a system while the incident is ongoing to prevent further contamination.
B. Compliance teams can be legally required to conduct a post-incident root cause analysis to satisfy regulatory requirements.
C. The leadership team can better allocate resources to address systemic issues that span multiple groups in an organization.
D. The organization can use the results of the analysis to provide stakeholders with assurances that customer data was not disclosed.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Root cause analysis identifies the underlying systemic issues that allowed the incident to occur, enabling leadership to address weaknesses across processes, technology, or teams and allocate resources effectively to prevent recurrence.

NEW QUESTION # 87
A company needs to design controls to address the following vulnerabilities:
- Broken access control
- RXSS
- CSRF
- Injection flaws
- Directory traversal
Which of the following resources provides the most comprehensive recommendations?

A. MITRE ATT&CK framework
B. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
C. OWASP Web Security Testing Guide
D. Cyber Kill Chain

Answer: C

Explanation:
The OWASP Web Security Testing Guide provides comprehensive guidance for identifying, testing, and mitigating common web application vulnerabilities, including broken access control, cross-site scripting (XSS), cross-site request forgery (CSRF), injection flaws, and directory traversal. It is specifically focused on web application security and offers detailed recommendations for addressing these types of weaknesses.

NEW QUESTION # 88
An analyst must provide a visualization of data received from threat intelligence sources. The data includes the Internet Protocols, services, and tools used by threat actors.
Which of the following is the best framework for the analyst to follow to display this data?

A. Cyber Kill Chain
B. MITRE Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge and Detection, Denial, and Disruption Framework Empowering Network Defense
C. Exploit Prediction Scoring System
D. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is specifically suited to visually representing relationships between a threat actor, the infrastructure used during an intrusion, the actor's capabilities, and the victim. Its four principal vertices are adversary, infrastructure, capability, and victim . IP addresses and network services naturally map to infrastructure, while malware and attack tools map to capability.
The original Diamond Model describes an intrusion event through these four interconnected features and uses their relationships to support documentation, correlation, and analysis of malicious activity. This makes it particularly useful when the analyst wants to visualize intelligence rather than simply place activity into chronological stages.
EPSS predicts the probability that a vulnerability will be exploited and therefore does not model threat-actor infrastructure. The Cyber Kill Chain represents progressive stages of an intrusion, making it useful for understanding attack progression but less suitable for relational visualization. MITRE ATT & CK provides detailed behavioral information on adversary tactics and techniques; MITRE itself notes that ATT & CK and the Diamond Model are complementary, with the Diamond Model particularly useful for clustering and relating intrusion information.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # Threat Intelligence # Diamond Model # Adversary # Infrastructure # Capability # Victim # Threat Visualization.

NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following contains stakeholder contact information for incident response reporting?

A. The company organization chart
B. The standard operating procedures
C. The communication plan
D. The last incident report

Answer: C

Explanation:
The communication plan identifies relevant stakeholders, their contact details, notification methods, and escalation procedures during an incident.

NEW QUESTION # 90
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