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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|
| Security Operations | 34% | - Indicators of Potential Malicious Activity
- 1. Social engineering attacks
- 2. Cloud-related indicators
- 3. Unauthorized configuration
- 4. Network-related indicators
- 5. Application-related indicators
- 6. Email-related attacks
- 7. Identity-based indicators
- 8. Host-related indicators
- Threat Intelligence and Threat Hunting
- 1. Indicators of compromise
- 2. Collection methods and sources
- 3. Tactics, techniques, and procedures
- 4. Threat actors
- 5. Threat mapping
- 6. Threat modeling
- 7. Cyber deception
- 8. Confidence-level impacts
- System and Network Architecture in Security Operations
- 1. Data protection concepts
- 2. Identity and access management
- 3. Infrastructure and system architecture concepts
- 4. Logging concepts
- 5. Encryption techniques
- 6. Network architecture concepts
- 7. Device management concepts
- 8. Operating system concepts
- 9. Critical infrastructure concepts
- Artificial Intelligence in Security Operations
- 1. AI use cases
- 2. AI governance
- 3. AI risks
- Efficiency and Process Improvement in Security Operations
- 1. Standardize processes
- 2. Streamline operations
- 3. Technology and tool integration
- 4. Automation and orchestration
- 5. Data enrichment
- Tools for Determining Malicious Activity
- 1. File formats
- 2. File analysis
- 3. Pattern recognition and suspicious command analysis
- 4. Domain and IP reputation
- 5. Threat intelligence platforms
- 6. Sandboxing
- 7. Packet analysis
- 8. Programming and scripting languages
- 9. Email analysis
- 10. Endpoint security
- 11. Decoding and parsing
- 12. Log analysis and SIEM
- 13. User and entity behavior analysis
|
| Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Attack Methodology Frameworks
- 1. MITRE ATT&CK
- 2. Cyber Kill Chain
- 3. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
- Incident Response Process
- 1. Post-incident activities
- 2. Eradication
- 3. Preparation
- 4. Containment
- 5. Analysis
- 6. Detection
- 7. Recovery
- Incident Response Techniques
- 1. Playbooks and roles
- 2. Log collection, correlation, and enrichment
- 3. Evidence gathering and preservation
- 4. Remediation and verification
- 5. Timeline, severity, impact, and prioritization
- 6. Isolation and escalation
- 7. Corrective action development
- 8. Alerts, notifications, and triage
- 9. Incident response and communication plans
- 10. Restoration
- 11. Root cause analysis
- 12. Training and exercises
|
| Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Prioritization and Mitigation
- 1. Scoring methods
- 2. Vulnerability prioritization criteria
- 3. Mitigation strategies
- 4. Context awareness
- 5. Validation of remediation
- Vulnerability Scanning Methods
- 1. Security baseline scanning
- 2. Discovery
- 3. Planning considerations
- 4. Asset inventory
- 5. Scan types
- Control Types, Risks, and Vulnerability Management
- 1. Risk management strategies
- 2. Policies, governance, and service-level objectives
- 3. Application security
- 4. Control functions
- 5. Risk concepts
- 6. Third-party risk
- 7. Control types
- Vulnerability Assessment Tools
- 1. Breach attack simulation tools
- 2. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools
- 3. Multipurpose tools
- 4. Network scanning and mapping
- 5. Web application scanners
- 6. Vulnerability scanners
|
| Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Vulnerability Management Reporting and Communication
- 1. Metrics and key performance indicators
- 2. Inhibitors to remediation
- 3. Stakeholder identification and communication
- 4. Action plans
- 5. Compliance findings
- 6. Vulnerability scan reports
- 7. Risk scorecards
- Security Operations and Incident Response Reporting and Communication
- 1. Operational security awareness
- 2. Metrics and key performance indicators
- 3. Shift and incident handover
- 4. Communication plan
- 5. Executive summary
- 6. Incident declaration and escalation
- 7. Post-incident reporting
- 8. Internal threat intelligence report
|
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q105-Q110):
NEW QUESTION # 105
A security analyst receives a notice about a possible data breach. The report identifies unapproved, current access dates for files found in the following personnel archives:

Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?
- A. Reset user credentials.
- B. Establish a timeline.
- C. Perform log correlation.
- D. Restore files from backup.
- E. Establish a legal hold.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The analyst should first establish a legal hold because the suspected breach involves personnel records and evidence that may become relevant to regulatory, disciplinary, civil, or other legal proceedings. A legal hold prevents potentially relevant information from being deleted, overwritten, modified, rotated out under normal retention schedules, or otherwise destroyed before the organization's legal and investigative obligations are understood.
Preservation must precede destructive or potentially evidence-altering actions. NIST describes digital forensics as retrieving, storing, and analyzing electronic information while ensuring that evidence is captured reliably without alteration. RFC 3227 similarly emphasizes preserving evidence, following proper collection procedures, documenting handling, and maintaining chain of custody.
Log correlation and timeline construction are important investigative activities, but they should occur after preservation requirements have been established. Resetting credentials may subsequently be required for containment, but the scenario first raises an evidence-preservation obligation. Restoring files from backup would be especially premature because it could alter timestamps, overwrite artifacts, or otherwise complicate forensic analysis.
The examination principle is therefore preserve first when legal implications are reasonably foreseeable; analyze and remediate afterward under controlled procedures .
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Evidence Acquisition # Legal Hold # Evidence Preservation # Chain of Custody # Timeline Analysis # Regulatory/Legal Considerations.
NEW QUESTION # 106
A vulnerability analyst must perform a security assessment on an edge device running various services.
The analyst runs an Nmap port scan and sees the following output:

Which of the following should the analyst do next to validate the discovered remote access service is secure?
- A. Verify that the web server certificate is added to certificate store.
- B. Verify that the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) route has been published.
- C. Verify that the virtual private network (VPN) service is utilizing Main Mode.
- D. Verify that the web server can be pinged.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The relevant follow-up is to assess the security configuration of the discovered VPN/IKE remote-access service , making option C the appropriate examination answer. Internet Key Exchange supports different negotiation modes, and Nmap includes specific capabilities for assessing IKE services. Nmap's ike-version script probes UDP port 500 and tests both Main and Aggressive Mode while identifying supported transforms and vendor characteristics.
Nmap's IKE library likewise explicitly supports generating either Main Mode or Aggressive Mode requests, enabling analysts to characterize the configuration of an exposed VPN endpoint. The security concern traditionally associated with this distinction is that Aggressive Mode exposes more negotiation information and has historically enabled offline attacks in some pre-shared-key configurations; Main Mode provides stronger identity protection during IKEv1 negotiation.
The other choices do not validate the security of the remote-access service. A web-server certificate is relevant to TLS-enabled HTTP services, BGP route publication relates to network routing, and ICMP ping only demonstrates basic reachability.
The analyst should therefore move from port discovery to service-specific configuration validation .
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Nmap # Service Enumeration # VPN/IKE # UDP 500
# Main Mode/Aggressive Mode # Configuration Validation.
NEW QUESTION # 107
A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan on the corporate assets and finds the following vulnerabilities:

The vulnerability manager reviews the analyst's recommendations and asks the analyst to add more information in order to confirm prioritization. Which of the following best explains the reason the manager requests more information?
- A. Zero-day vulnerabilities were excluded
- B. Existing KPIs were not measured
- C. Host critically is unknown
- D. SLA information is missing
Answer: C
Explanation:
CVSS scores alone are not sufficient to prioritize remediation efforts. The criticality of the affected host or asset must also be considered. A vulnerability with a lower CVSS score on a mission- critical system may present a greater business risk than a higher-scoring vulnerability on a less important system. The manager is requesting additional information to perform proper risk-based prioritization.
NEW QUESTION # 108
The threat intelligence team is using the MITRE ATT&CK framework to map threat actors' TTPs to the team's internal reference library. Which of the following best describes the reason visualization and stage alignment are helpful for the IR team?
- A. Having a common framework provides structure for relaying the known indicators of concern to the security monitoring team
- B. Aligning an action to a specific stage in an incident allows the IR team to better define intent and anticipate the next action
- C. A visual mapping helps the IR team identify the stage and relevant TTPs faster than a white paper for each threat actor
- D. Knowing the attack stage helps the IR team determine how to structure custom SIEM alerts to detect security events of interest
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mapping TTPs to specific MITRE ATT&CK stages helps incident responders understand an adversary's intent, determine where the attack is in its lifecycle, and anticipate likely next actions.
This allows the IR team to respond more effectively and proactively by focusing on techniques that commonly follow the observed activity.
NEW QUESTION # 109
A security operations center manager is concerned that after action reporting is not being completed in a timely manner.
Which of the following will allow the manager to quantify this concern?
- A. Mean time between failures
- B. Mean time to close
- C. Mean time to remediate
- D. Mean time to respond
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mean time to close is the most relevant measurement because the manager needs to quantify how long cases or incidents remain open before all required closure activities-including after-action documentation-are completed.
An incident may already be technically contained and remediated while administrative closure remains outstanding. Mean time to remediate measures how long it takes to correct or neutralize the security problem, but it does not necessarily include final reporting and formal case closure. Mean time to respond measures how quickly responders begin or perform response activity after detection. Mean time between failures is primarily a reliability metric describing the average operating duration between failures and does not measure SOC reporting performance.
Current Microsoft Sentinel SOC guidance explicitly includes mean time to closure and time-to-closure percentiles among incident-management metrics used to evaluate SOC performance. This directly maps to the manager's concern: if after-action reports delay completion of incidents, the organization's mean closure time will increase and can be trended by analyst, severity, team, or incident category.
Therefore, B provides the quantitative evidence needed to determine whether after-action reporting is preventing incidents from being closed promptly.
Study Guide Reference: Reporting and Communication # Incident Metrics # Mean Time to Close # After- Action Reporting # SOC Performance Measurement # Continuous Improvement.
NEW QUESTION # 110
......
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