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NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following isnotone of the patient rights enumerated in the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The PSDA focuses onpatient autonomy and informed decision-making, especially aroundadvance directives. It requires certain healthcare organizations to inform patients of their rights under state law to make decisions about medical care, ask whether the patient has an advance directive, document it, and avoid discrimination based on whether an advance directive exists. The Act doesnotcreate a right for patients to select any medication they want irrespective of clinical appropriateness, prescribing laws, formularies, allergies, contraindications, or standards of care. Risk management objectives here include: ensuring compliant admission workflows (education + documentation), reducing disputes through early clarification of preferences, and preventing ethical/legal breakdowns during incapacity. Operationally, PSDA compliance improves care planning, reduces unwanted treatment, and lowers complaint/litigation risk by showing the organization respected patient rights and followed required processes.
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following should prompt a risk manager to give notice to a malpractice carrier?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles established by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, timely notice to a malpractice carrier is a critical obligation, particularly under claims-made policies. A demand letter from a patient constitutes a clear assertion of liability and a request for compensation, which typically meets the definition of a claim under most malpractice insurance policies. Failure to notify the carrier promptly may jeopardize coverage.
A written medical record request from an attorney may signal potential litigation, but it does not necessarily constitute a claim unless accompanied by an allegation of wrongdoing or a demand for damages. An internal incident report is a risk management tool used for quality and safety improvement and does not itself trigger insurance notification requirements. Similarly, disclosure to a patient regarding an adverse event aligns with transparency practices but does not automatically represent a formal claim.
Risk management objectives emphasize understanding policy language, particularly definitions of claim and reporting requirements. Because a demand letter explicitly alleges harm and seeks compensation, it most clearly triggers the duty to notify the malpractice carrier to preserve coverage and initiate appropriate claims handling procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 111
What is the difference between a deductible and a self-insured retention?
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, both deductibles and self-insured retentions are mechanisms used in risk financing to allocate a portion of loss to the insured organization. However, they function differently in relation to the insurer's obligation.
A deductible is typically subtracted from the amount paid by the commercial carrier. In many policies, the insurer may pay the full claim amount and then seek reimbursement of the deductible from the insured, or the insured may pay the deductible portion while the insurer handles defense and indemnity payments above that amount. The key distinction is that coverage attaches immediately, but the insured ultimately bears the deductible portion.
A self-insured retention differs in that the insured must satisfy the retention amount before the insurer's coverage is triggered. Until the retention is exhausted, the insured is responsible for payment and often for defense management.
Option B incorrectly describes a deductible as operating like a self-insured retention. Option C does not distinguish between the two mechanisms. Option D is incorrect because self-insured retention applies before, not after, carrier limits.
Therefore, the correct distinction is that a deductible is subtracted from amounts paid by the commercial carrier.
NEW QUESTION # 112
A 78-year-old patient in the ICU is unable to speak or swallow. The physician states that she is terminally ill and believes she lacks decision-making capacity. As such, he has deferred to her properly executed advance directive that clearly outlines her wishes for no life-prolonging treatment. The patient's three sons know of the directive, but insist that a PEG tube be placed to assist with feeding. The physician is opposed to placing the tube. The nurse calls the risk manager for advice. Which of the following should the risk manager advise?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles recognized by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a properly executed advance directive carries legal authority when a patient lacks decision-making capacity. The physician has assessed that the patient is terminally ill and lacks capacity, triggering activation of the advance directive. If the directive clearly states refusal of life-prolonging treatment, including artificial nutrition and hydration, those wishes must be honored in accordance with state law and the Patient Self-Determination Act framework.
Patient autonomy is a foundational ethical and legal principle in health care. Once capacity is lost, previously expressed wishes through a valid advance directive govern care decisions. Family members do not have authority to override a valid directive unless legal defects or ambiguity exist. Their disagreement does not negate the patient's documented preferences.
Although ethics consultation can be helpful in managing conflict, the directive here is described as properly executed and clear. Additional determination of capacity is unnecessary because the physician has already made that assessment.
Risk management objectives emphasize compliance with advance directive statutes, respect for patient autonomy, and reduction of liability through adherence to documented patient wishes. Therefore, the appropriate advice is to support the physician in honoring the advance directive.
NEW QUESTION # 113
According to The Joint Commission, which of the following should be done to patient-owned electrical devices entering the facility?
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and accreditation guidance from The Joint Commission, patient-owned electrical devices brought into healthcare facilities must be evaluated to ensure they do not pose safety risks. The Joint Commission's Environment of Care standards emphasize electrical safety, fire prevention, and reduction of hazards within patient care areas.
Before a patient-owned electrical device is used within the facility, an electrical safety inspection should be conducted to assess the integrity of cords, plugs, grounding, and overall condition. The purpose is to identify potential risks such as frayed wiring, overheating hazards, or improper voltage compatibility that could endanger patients, staff, or equipment.
Simply inventorying the device with personal belongings does not address safety concerns. Sequestering the device may be appropriate if it fails inspection, but routine confiscation is not required. While biomedical engineering departments often assist with inspections, tagging by biomedical engineering is not itself the required action; the essential requirement is that a safety inspection be performed.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize proactive hazard identification and compliance with accreditation standards. Therefore, conducting an electrical safety inspection is the appropriate action for patient-owned electrical devices entering the facility.
NEW QUESTION # 114
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