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FINRA SIE Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Overview of the Regulatory Framework: This section of the exam measures the skills of Compliance Officers and evaluates knowledge of self-regulatory organization (SRO) requirements, including registration and continuing education for associated persons. Candidates must understand the distinction between registered and non-registered individuals and the requirements for maintaining industry qualifications.
Topic 2	Regulatory Entities, Agencies, and Market Participants: This section of the exam measures the skills of Financial Regulatory Analysts and covers the structure, authority, and jurisdiction of key regulatory bodies overseeing financial markets. The SEC's role in enforcing securities regulations is assessed, along with the authority of self-regulatory organizations such as FINRA and MSRB. Candidates must also understand the functions of other financial regulators, including the Department of the Treasury and state regulatory agencies. One key skill evaluated is identifying the jurisdictional scope of different financial regulators.
Topic 3	Understanding Trading, Customer Accounts, and Prohibited Activities: This section of the exam measures the skills of Securities Traders and focuses on different trading strategies, settlement processes, and corporate actions. Candidates must demonstrate knowledge of order types, including market, limit, stop, and good-til-canceled orders, as well as bid-ask spreads and discretionary versus non-discretionary trading.
Topic 4	Understanding Products and Their Risks: This section of the exam measures the skills of Investment Analysts and examines different financial products and associated risks. Candidates must understand equity securities, including common stock, as well as debt instruments such as Treasury securities and mortgage-backed securities.
Topic 5	Employee Conduct and Reportable Events: This section of the exam measures the skills of Financial Compliance Specialists and covers regulatory expectations regarding employee conduct and disclosure requirements. Candidates must be familiar with Form U4 and Form U5, as well as reporting obligations for outside business activities and political contributions.

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FINRA Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) Sample Questions (Q14-Q19):

NEW QUESTION # 14
A broker-dealer (BD) signs a selling agreement with the ABC family of mutual funds. To introduce the funds to the BD's sales force, ABC offers a training and education trip at a popular beach resort. The trip expenses will be covered by ABC for the three registered representatives in the BD who have the highest level of production in ABC funds during the month. The BD's branch office managers assess each sale of ABC funds to ensure that the BD's recommendations are aligned with the customers' investment objectives and risk tolerance. Which of the following statements best describes the permissibility of this arrangement?

A. The arrangement is permissible, since the sole purpose of the trip offered by ABC is training and education.
B. The arrangement is not permissible, since the sales incentive is offered by ABC and not the BD.
C. The arrangement is permissible, since the BD has an established supervisory process to ensure its recommendations fit the customers' investment objectives and risk tolerance.
D. The arrangement is not permissible, since the trip incentive creates a prohibited conflict of interest.

Answer: D

Explanation:
This arrangement is not permissible because it is a sales contest/incentive tied directly to the sale of a specific investment company's products, and it is funded by the product sponsor (ABC). Even if described as "training and education," the key facts make it a prohibited non-cash compensation practice: the reward is offered only to the top producers of ABC fund sales during the month, and the trip is to a beach resort-creating a strong incentive to recommend ABC funds to maximize eligibility for the reward. This type of incentive can improperly influence recommendations and creates a conflict of interest between the RR's compensation motivations and the customer's best interest. Therefore, B is the best answer.
Choice A is not the best reason. The issue is not merely that the incentive is offered by ABC instead of the BD; non-cash compensation rules restrict sales contests and special compensation arrangements regardless of who sponsors them when they are tied to the sale of specific securities. Choice C is incorrect because calling something "training and education" does not make it permissible when the eligibility is driven by production in that sponsor's products. True training meetings may be permitted under tightly defined conditions, but they cannot be structured as a sales contest rewarding top sellers. Choice D is also incorrect because even strong supervision does not cure a prohibited compensation structure-supervision is required, but it does not override rules designed to prevent conflicted incentives.
The SIE tests recognition that product-specific sales contests and lavish non-cash incentives are problematic because they can lead to biased recommendations and undermine fair dealing and best interest obligations.

NEW QUESTION # 15
A market maker quotes the market on an NMS equity security as 39.05 - 39.15 [5x10]. Which of the following orders is the market maker required to fill?

A. A buy order for 2,000 shares at $39.15
B. A sell stop order for 500 shares at $39.00
C. A sell order for 300 shares at $39.05
D. A buy order for 1,000 shares at $39.10

Answer: A

Explanation:
The quote indicates that the market maker is willing to buy 500 shares at $39.05 (bid) and sell 1,000 shares at
$39.15 (ask). Market makers are required to honor their quoted size for orders that fall within their bid/ask prices.
* D is correct because the market maker is obligated to sell at least 1,000 shares at $39.15 as it falls within the quoted size and price.
* B is incorrect because the bid is at $39.05, not $39.00.
* C is incorrect because $39.10 does not match the ask price.
* A is invalid as a stop order would not activate at $39.00.
Reference: Securities Exchange Act of 1934, Regulation NMS Rule 602

NEW QUESTION # 16
An associated person at a member firm receives a complaint from a customer involving allegations of forgery.
Once the complaint is received, which of the following actions is required?

A. The member firm must report the event promptly to FINRA.
B. The member firm must complete arbitration to resolve the complaint with the customer before filing a report with FINRA.
C. The member firm must have a principal review the complaint and determine if the forgery occurred before filing a report with FINRA.
D. The member firm is not required to report the event to FINRA but must maintain a file of the complaint for four years.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* FINRA Rule 4530: Requires member firms to report certain events, including allegations of forgery, to FINRA promptly.
* Incorrect Options:
* Option B: Maintaining a record does not substitute for required reporting.
* Option C: Arbitration isn't required before reporting.
* Option D: Reporting is mandatory irrespective of internal investigations.
:
FINRA Rule 4530 (Reporting Requirements): FINRA Rule 4530.

NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following features is characteristic of common stock?

A. Has fixed dividend payments
B. Has greater priority than bonds in the event of corporate liquidation
C. Represents ownership in a corporation
D. Has greater priority than preferred stock in the event of corporate liquidation

Answer: C

Explanation:
Common stock represents an equity ownership interest in a corporation. A common stockholder is a residual owner: the investor may benefit from capital appreciation, may receive dividends if declared by the board of directors, and typically has voting rights. However, common stock does not provide fixed dividend payments.
Dividends on common stock are discretionary and may be increased, reduced, omitted, or resumed depending on corporate earnings, board policy, and capital needs. Choice B describes a feature more closely associated with preferred stock, which generally pays a stated dividend. Choices C and D are incorrect because common stock has the lowest priority in liquidation. In a corporate liquidation, secured creditors and bondholders are paid before preferred shareholders, and preferred shareholders are paid before common shareholders.
Common shareholders receive only what remains after all senior claims are satisfied. The SIE outline places common stock under "Equity Securities" and specifically identifies the need to know "Ownership," "order of liquidation," "limited liability," and "voting rights." Those points directly support choice A. Reference:
Section 2.1.1 Equity Securities; common stock, ownership, voting rights, and liquidation priority.

NEW QUESTION # 18
A registered representative constructs a portfolio of stocks that replicates the S&P 500 Index (SPX). He then regularly buys and sells SPX options to profit off changes in implied volatility. This is an example of:

A. passive management.
B. Index rebalancing.
C. active management.
D. day trading.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 19
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