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Amazon SOA-C03 Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:	AWS
Exam Name:	AWS Certified CloudOps Engineer - Associate
Exam Number:	SOA-C03
Passing Score:	720 (scaled score, out of 100-1000)
Exam Duration:	130 minutes
Related Certifications:	AWS Certified CloudOps Engineer - Associate
Certificate Validity Period:	3 years
Available Languages:	Japanese, English, Simplified Chinese, Korean
Exam Price:	USD 150
Exam Format:	Multiple response, Multiple choice
Real Exam Qty:	65 (50 scored, 15 unscored)
Sample Questions:	Amazon SOA-C03 Sample Questions
Exam Way:	Online (proctored) or at a testing center (Pearson VUE or PSI)
Pre Condition:	Recommended: 1 year of experience with AWS deployment, management, troubleshooting, networking, and security. Experience in an operations role such as system administrator is helpful.
Official Syllabus URL:	https://docs.aws.amazon.com/aws-certification/latest/sysops-administrator-associate-03/sysops-administrator-associate-03.html

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Amazon SOA-C03 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Reliability and Business Continuity: This section measures the skills of System Administrators and focuses on maintaining scalability, elasticity, and fault tolerance. It includes configuring load balancing, auto scaling, Multi-AZ deployments, implementing backup and restore strategies with AWS Backup and versioning, and ensuring disaster recovery to meet RTO and RPO goals.
Topic 2	Deployment, Provisioning, and Automation: This section measures the skills of Cloud Engineers and covers provisioning and maintaining cloud resources using AWS CloudFormation, CDK, and third-party tools. It evaluates automation of deployments, remediation of resource issues, and managing infrastructure using Systems Manager and event-driven processes like Lambda or S3 notifications.
Topic 3	Networking and Content Delivery: This section measures skills of Cloud Network Engineers and focuses on VPC configuration, subnets, routing, network ACLs, and gateways. It includes optimizing network cost and performance, configuring DNS with Route 53, using CloudFront and Global Accelerator for content delivery, and troubleshooting network and hybrid connectivity using logs and monitoring tools.
Topic 4	Security and Compliance: This section measures skills of Security Engineers and includes implementing IAM policies, roles, MFA, and access controls. It focuses on troubleshooting access issues, enforcing compliance, securing data at rest and in transit using AWS KMS and ACM, protecting secrets, and applying findings from Security Hub, GuardDuty, and Inspector.
Topic 5	Monitoring, Logging, Analysis, Remediation, and Performance Optimization: This section of the exam measures skills of CloudOps Engineers and covers implementing AWS monitoring tools such as CloudWatch, CloudTrail, and Prometheus. It evaluates configuring alarms, dashboards, and notifications, analyzing performance metrics, troubleshooting issues using EventBridge and Systems Manager, and applying strategies to optimize compute, storage, and database performance.

Amazon AWS Certified CloudOps Engineer - Associate Sample Questions (Q220-Q225):

NEW QUESTION # 220
A company hosts a static website in Amazon S3 behind an Amazon CloudFront distribution. When new versions are deployed, users sometimes do not see updated content immediately.
Which solution will meet this requirement?

A. Modify the distribution settings to specify the protocol as HTTPS only.
B. Configure the CloudFront distribution to add a custom Cache-Control header to requests for content from the S3 bucket.
C. Attach the CachingOptimized managed cache policy to the distribution.
D. Create a CloudFront invalidation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The AWS Cloud Operations and Content Delivery documentation explains that Amazon CloudFront caches objects in edge locations for a defined time based on TTL settings or origin headers. When new content is deployed to the S3 origin, previously cached versions remain in edge caches until they expire.
To immediately serve the new version, CloudOps engineers must initiate a CloudFront invalidation, which removes cached objects from all edge locations. This forces CloudFront to fetch the latest version from the origin (S3).
Invalidations can target individual objects (e.g., /index.html) or wildcard paths (e.g., /*) and are the AWS- recommended approach for dynamic content refresh after static site updates.
Changing headers (Option A), enforcing HTTPS (Option B), or applying caching policies (Option C) do not directly refresh outdated cache content.
Thus, Option D - issuing a CloudFront invalidation - ensures users receive the latest website content immediately after deployment.
Reference: AWS Cloud Operations & Content Delivery Guide - Using Invalidation to Refresh Cached Content in CloudFront

NEW QUESTION # 221
A company deploys an application on Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company wants to protect the application from SQL injection attacks.
Which solution will meet this requirement?

A. Deploy AWS Shield Standard in front of the ALB. Enable SQL injection filtering.
B. Deploy a vulnerability scanner on each EC2 instance. Continuously scan the application code.
C. Deploy AWS WAF in front of the ALB. Subscribe to an AWS Managed Rule for SQL injection filtering.
D. Deploy AWS Shield Advanced in front of the ALB. Enable SQL injection filtering.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The AWS Cloud Operations and Security documentation confirms that AWS WAF (Web Application Firewall) is designed to protect web applications from application-layer threats, including SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other OWASP Top 10 vulnerabilities.
When integrated with an Application Load Balancer, AWS WAF inspects incoming traffic using rule groups.
The AWS Managed Rules for SQL Injection Protection provide preconfigured, continuously updated filters that detect and block malicious SQL patterns.
AWS Shield (Standard or Advanced) defends against DDoS attacks, not application-layer SQL attacks, and vulnerability scanners (Option C) only detect, not prevent, exploitation.
Thus, Option D provides the correct, managed, and automated protection aligned with AWS best practices.
Reference: AWS Cloud Operations & Security Guide - Protecting Applications from SQL Injection with AWS WAF Managed Rules

NEW QUESTION # 222
A company is using an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster that has point-in-time recovery, backtracking, and automatic backup enabled. A CloudOps engineer needs to roll back the DB cluster to a specific recovery point within the previous 72 hours. Restores must be completed in the same production DB cluster.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Use backtracking to rewind the existing DB cluster to the desired recovery point.
B. Create an Aurora Replica. Promote the replica to replace the primary DB instance.
C. Use point-in-time recovery to restore the existing DB cluster to the desired recovery point.
D. Create an AWS Lambda function to restore an automatic backup to the existing DB cluster.

Answer: A

Explanation:
As documented in AWS Cloud Operations and Database Recovery, Aurora Backtrack allows you to rewind the existing database cluster to a chosen point in time without creating a new cluster.
This feature supports fine-grained rollback for accidental data changes, making it ideal for scenarios like table deletions or logical corruption.
Backtracking maintains continuous transaction logs and permits rewinding within a configurable window (up to 72 hours). It does not require creating a new cluster or endpoint, and it preserves the same production environment, fulfilling the operational requirement for in-place recovery.
In contrast, Point-in-Time Recovery (Option D) always creates a new cluster, while replica promotion (Option A) and Lambda restoration (Option B) are unrelated to immediate rollback operations.
Therefore, Option C, using Aurora Backtrack, best meets the requirement for same-cluster restoration and minimal downtime.

NEW QUESTION # 223
A company's CloudOps engineer deploys four new Amazon EC2 instances by using the standard Amazon Linux Amazon Machine Image (AMI). The company needs to be able to use AWS Systems Manager to manage the instances. The CloudOps engineer notices that the instances do not appear in the Systems Manager console. What must the CloudOps engineer do to resolve this issue?

A. Connect to each instance by using SSH. Create an ssm-user account. Add the ssm-user account to the /etc/sudoers.d directory.
B. Attach an IAM instance profile to the instances. Ensure that the instance profile contains the AmazonSSMManagedInstanceCore policy.
C. Use AWS Certificate Manager (ACM) to create a TLS certificate. Import the certificate into each instance. Configure Systems Manager Agent to use the TLS certificate for secure communications.
D. Connect to each instance by using SSH. Install Systems Manager Agent on each instance.
Configure Systems Manager Agent to start automatically when the instances start up.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Standard Amazon Linux AMIs typically already include the Systems Manager Agent. If instances do not appear as managed nodes in Systems Manager, the most common missing requirement is the instance profile permissions that allow the SSM Agent to communicate with Systems Manager service endpoints. The AWS managed policy AmazonSSMManagedInstanceCore grants the required permissions for core Systems Manager functionality.

NEW QUESTION # 224
A company is migrating a legacy application to AWS. The application runs on EC2 instances across multiple Availability Zones behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The target group routing algorithm is set to weighted random, and the application requires session affinity (sticky sessions).
After deployment, users report random application errors that were not present before migration, even though target health checks are passing.
Which solution will meet this requirement?

A. Turn on anomaly mitigation for the target group.
B. Turn off the cross-zone load balancing attribute of the target group.
C. Increase the deregistration delay attribute of the target group.
D. Set the routing algorithm of the target group to least outstanding requests.

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the AWS Cloud Operations and Elastic Load Balancing documentation, Application Load Balancer (ALB) supports multiple routing algorithms to distribute requests among targets:
* Round robin (default)
* Least outstanding requests (LOR)
* Weighted random
When applications require session affinity, AWS recommends using "least outstanding requests" as the load balancing algorithm because it reduces latency, distributes load evenly, and ensures consistent target responsiveness during high traffic.
Using weighted random routing with sticky sessions can cause sessions to be routed inconsistently if one target's capacity fluctuates, leading to session mismatches and application errors - especially when user sessions rely on instance-specific state.
Disabling cross-zone balancing (Option C) or adjusting deregistration delay (Option D) does not address routing inconsistency. Anomaly mitigation (Option B) protects against target performance degradation, not sticky-session misrouting.
Therefore, the correct solution is Option A - changing the target group's routing algorithm to least outstanding requests ensures smoother, predictable session handling and resolves random application errors.
Reference: AWS Cloud Operations & Load Balancing Guide - Optimizing Application Load Balancer Routing Algorithms for Stateful Applications

NEW QUESTION # 225
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