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This practice exam software includes all CRISC exam questions that have a high chance of appearing in the Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control exam. The CRISC practice exam allows you to set the number of questions and time for each attempt and presents you with a self-assessment report showing your performance. You might not be able to get all-in-one practice material for the Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control CRISC of such excellent quality anywhere else.
Achieving the CRISC certification demonstrates an individual's expertise in risk management and information systems control, which is becoming increasingly important in today's technology-driven world. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is recognized globally and is an essential credential for IT professionals looking to advance their careers in the fields of risk management and information systems control. The CRISC Certification helps professionals to identify and assess risks, develop effective risk management strategies, and successfully implement information systems controls to mitigate risks.
NEW QUESTION # 1568
Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Segregation of duties is a key control for preventing and detecting fraudulent transactions, especially in a large organization where there are many employees and transactions involved. Segregation of duties means that no single person has the authority or ability to initiate, approve, execute, and record a transaction without the involvement or oversight of another person. This reduces the opportunity and incentive for fraud, as well as the risk of errors or omissions. Segregation of duties also facilitates the detection of fraud by creating an audit trail and increasing the likelihood of whistleblowing.
The other options are not as effective as segregation of duties for mitigating risk related to fraudulent transactions. Monetary approval limits (B) are useful for controlling the amount and frequency of transactions, but they do not prevent unauthorized or fraudulent transactions from occurring. Clear roles and responsibilities
are important for defining the expectations and accountabilities of employees, but they do not ensure that employees comply with them or that their actions are monitored and verified. Password policies (D) are essential for securing access to systems and data, but they do not prevent fraudsters from exploiting weak or compromised passwords or from using legitimate passwords for fraudulent purposes.
NEW QUESTION # 1569
Which of the following processes is MOST helpful in proactively identifying non-compliant baseline images prior to implementing IT systems?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because configuration management is the process most directly concerned with establishing, maintaining, and validating system baselines. If the goal is to identify non-compliant baseline images before implementation, configuration management is the most helpful process because it governs approved configurations and compares actual builds to required baselines.
The other options are less appropriate:
* A. Patch management focuses on updates and fixes, not full baseline compliance.
* C. Vulnerability management identifies known weaknesses, but not baseline-image compliance as directly as configuration management.
* D. Change management governs approval of changes, but it does not primarily validate baseline images.
Exact Extracts supporting the answer:
* "The control practice related to information systems architecture that includes establishing and maintaining baselines for internally developed systems is Configuration management."
* "The MOST appropriate metric to measure how well the information security function is managing the administration of user access is percent of accounts with configurations in compliance."
* "Including thresholds that identify when controls no longer provide the intended value is essential when developing metrics to monitor the control life cycle."
* "The BEST way to identify IS control deficiencies is through defined control objectives." These extracts support that baseline definition and compliance checking are core configuration management activities. Therefore, the best answer is configuration management .
NEW QUESTION # 1570
Which of the following BEST enforces access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies?
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 1571
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results is to communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management, as this enables them to make informed decisions about risk response and allocation of resources. The risk register is a tool for documenting and reporting the current status of risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, and responses. Updating the risk register with risk assessment results ensures that the information is accurate, relevant, and timely. The risk register also helps to monitor and track the progress and effectiveness of risk management activities. The other options are not the primary reasons to update the risk register, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 109.
NEW QUESTION # 1572
A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The FIRST thing that should be done when a KRI has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time is to recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI, because it may indicate that the trigger point is set too high or too low, or that the KRI is not relevant or effective in measuring the risk exposure. A re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI may result in adjusting the trigger point, changing the KRI, or removing the KRI. The other options are not the first thing that should be done, because:
* Option B: Notifying management that KRIs are being effectively managed is not the first thing that
* should be done, because it may not reflect the true risk status and performance. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not be a valid or reliable indicator of the risk exposure, and it may not capture the changes or trends in the risk environment.
* Option C: Updating the risk rating associated with the KRI in the risk register is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not be accurate or consistent. A risk rating is based on the likelihood and impact of the risk, and it should be derived from a comprehensive risk analysis, not just from a single KRI. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not reflect the actual likelihood and impact of the risk, and it may not be aligned with the other risk indicators and assessments.
* Option D: Updating the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not be appropriate or feasible. Risk tolerance and risk appetite are the acceptable level of risk exposure and variation that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and they are determined by the executive management and the board of directors, based on the enterprise's strategy and goals. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not represent the desired or optimal level of risk exposure and variation, and it may not be aligned with the enterprise's strategy and goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 121.
NEW QUESTION # 1573
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