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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	and billing: Covers Official Coding Guidelines, OPPS reimbursement (APCs), and professional billing concepts including CPT E M codes and Medicare Physician Fee Schedule documentation.
Topic 2	Coding and Reporting, the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS), and provider coding
Topic 3	Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the Official Guidelines for
Topic 4	Risk Adjustment Models and Impact of Documentation and Coding: Covers CMS-HCC model fundamentals, RAF scoring, Medicare Advantage payments, hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting requirements.
Topic 5	CDI Program Concepts: Department Metrics and Provider Education: Covers provider education development, CDI performance metrics including query rates, RAF progression, HCC capture, ACO MSSP impact, and physician documentation's effect on quality reporting.
Topic 6	Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q112-Q117):

NEW QUESTION # 112
In February, a patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer, which is classified as HCC 23. In October, the patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer with bone metastases, which is classified as HCC 18. Which of the following is true about the patient's risk score?

A. The risk score will not be impacted by the presence of HCC 18 or HCC 23 because they are not currently being treated.
B. The risk score will be calculated based upon HCC 18 and HCC 23 because they were both documented and coded in the same calendar year.
C. The risk score will be calculated based upon HCC 18 because it has the highest weight in the hierarchy HCC 23.
D. The risk score will be calculated based upon HCC 23 because it was captured first.

Answer: C

Explanation:
In the CMS-HCC model, many related conditions are organized into hierarchies so that only the most severe manifestation within a disease family contributes to the RAF. This prevents double counting when multiple codes describe progressive severity of the same underlying condition. Cancer categories are a common example: a diagnosis reflecting metastatic disease represents substantially higher expected resource utilization than a diagnosis of localized/primary malignancy. In this scenario, the February prostate cancer maps to a lower-severity HCC (HCC 23), while the October documentation of prostate cancer with bone metastases maps to a higher-severity HCC (HCC 18). When both are captured within the applicable period, the hierarchy logic retains the higher-weighted metastatic category and suppresses the lower category. The timing of which was coded first does not control the hierarchy outcome, and both HCCs are not counted together when they fall within the same hierarchical grouping. Therefore, the patient's risk score calculation reflects HCC 18 rather than HCC 23.

NEW QUESTION # 113
PCP notes describe the presence of atrial fibrillation for 10 days. Atenolol, sotalol and rivaroxaban are ordered. Possible ablation is discussed. Identify the type of atrial fibrillation described in this clinical scenario.

A. Persistent
B. Paroxysmal
C. Chronic
D. Permanent

Answer: A

Explanation:
Atrial fibrillation (AF) type is determined largely by episode duration and whether the rhythm self-terminates. In outpatient CDI education, paroxysmal AF is intermittent and typically terminates spontaneously, commonly within 7 days (often within 48 hours). Persistent AF is sustained and lasts more than 7 days, or requires active intervention (e.g., cardioversion) to restore sinus rhythm. This scenario documents AF "for 10 days," which exceeds the 7-day threshold and therefore best fits persistent AF. The management also aligns with a sustained arrhythmia strategy: rate control (atenolol), rhythm control/antiarrhythmic therapy (sotalol), stroke prevention anticoagulation (rivaroxaban), and discussion of catheter ablation, which is often considered for symptomatic or recurrent/persistent AF. "Chronic" is a nonspecific descriptor and not the preferred current classification term, and permanent AF implies a decision has been made not to pursue rhythm control (accepting AF long-term), which is not supported here because rhythm-control options are being considered.

NEW QUESTION # 114
A 67-year-old male patient has been seen by a PCP multiple times this year. Diagnoses reported are diabetes with nephropathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; diabetes with retinopathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; atrial fibrillation with an HCC weight of 0.299, and a demographic risk factor weight of 0.332. Which of the following is this patient's final RAF score for these diagnoses?

A. 0.932
B. 0.678
C. 0.797
D. 1.418

Answer: C

Explanation:
The patient's RAF is calculated by adding the applicable HCC weights plus the demographic factor, but only after applying the HCC model's hierarchy rules. In outpatient risk adjustment education (as emphasized in ACDIS-based training), certain condition groups are hierarchical-meaning multiple related diagnoses in the same hierarchy do not "stack." Instead, only the highest-ranked HCC in that disease group contributes to the RAF. Here, "diabetes with nephropathy" and "diabetes with retinopathy" both carry the same HCC weight (0.166) and fall within the diabetes complication hierarchy, so they do not add together; only one 0.166 value is counted. Atrial fibrillation contributes separately (0.299), and the demographic risk factor contributes (0.332). Therefore, the final RAF is 0.166 + 0.299 + 0.332 = 0.797. This illustrates why outpatient CDI focuses on documenting all clinically supported conditions for care accuracy, while understanding that some related diagnoses won't increase RAF beyond the highest applicable HCC in that hierarchy.

NEW QUESTION # 115
Which of the following concepts BEST reflects how risk adjustment is related to cost efficiency metrics?

A. It is directly calculated from provider E&M levels.
B. It is applied to resource utilization measures.
C. It is supported by interventions and procedures.
D. It is related to physician time spent with patient.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Risk adjustment is used to make cost and efficiency comparisons fair by accounting for differences in patient severity and expected resource needs. In outpatient CDI, accurate documentation and coding of chronic and acute conditions (especially risk-adjusting diagnoses such as HCC-relevant conditions) directly influence the risk profile assigned to a patient population. That risk profile is then applied when evaluating utilization and cost measures-such as total cost of care, inpatient admissions, ED use, and other resource consumption-so that providers or groups caring for more complex patients are not inappropriately labeled as inefficient simply because their patients require more services. This aligns with option B: risk adjustment is applied to resource utilization measures. Option A is incorrect because E&M levels are a professional billing construct and are not the basis for risk score calculation. Option C is incorrect because physician time may affect E&M selection under certain rules, but it is not the mechanism for risk adjustment in cost efficiency analytics. Option D is incorrect because procedures/interventions describe services rendered, not the adjustment methodology itself.

NEW QUESTION # 116
A CDI specialist receives a call from a disgruntled provider regarding recent documentation queries. The provider claims to only have 15 minutes to see patients and does not have time for interruptions like this if it does not increase reimbursement. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to effectively facilitate communication?

A. Explain to the provider that queries may affect reimbursement, however not directly, and he should comply.
B. Call the provider's superior and report him as being non-compliant with organizational processes.
C. Listen to the provider, agree this does not affect reimbursement, and explain that the CDI team will stop querying.
D. Request a time at the provider's convenience to review the query process and collaborate to facilitate the best workflow.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Effective outpatient CDI depends on provider engagement, efficient workflows, and respectful communication. When a provider is frustrated about time pressures, the most productive approach is to partner with them to reduce friction while preserving compliant documentation improvement. ACDIS outpatient CDI concepts emphasize collaboration and provider education-meeting the provider where they are, understanding their workflow constraints, and jointly designing a query process that is minimally disruptive (e.g., batching queries, aligning with clinic schedules, using prospective queries, leveraging templates, or routing through agreed channels). Option C directly addresses the root issue (workflow burden) and builds trust by seeking the provider's input and scheduling the discussion at their convenience. Option A is confrontational and frames CDI as a compliance demand rather than a clinical accuracy initiative. Option B is inappropriate because CDI cannot stop querying when clarification is needed for accurate documentation, coding, quality reporting, and risk adjustment. Option D escalates prematurely and damages relationships; escalation is typically reserved for persistent, unresolved non-responsiveness after collaborative efforts and leadership-supported education.

NEW QUESTION # 117
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