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Salesforce Plat-Arch-202 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Topic 1: Deploying	13%	- Deployment tools and automation 1. CI/CD pipelines 2. Salesforce DX
Topic 2: Building	13%	- Development practices 1. Metadata-driven development 2. Code review standards
Topic 3: Releasing	14%	- Release management 1. Rollback strategies 2. Release windows
Topic 4: Operating	8%	- Monitoring and governance 1. Incident management 2. Post-deployment monitoring
Topic 5: System Design	15%	- Environment strategy 1. Environment parity 2. Sandbox strategy
Topic 6: Application Lifecycle Management	17%	- Change management processes 1. Governance policies 2. Change approval workflows - Version control strategies 1. Source-driven development 2. Branching models (Git-based workflows)
Topic 7: Testing	10%	- Test automation 1. Unit testing strategies 2. Regression testing
Topic 8: Planning	10%	- Release planning 1. Milestone definition 2. Dependency planning

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Salesforce Certified Platform Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect Sample Questions (Q26-Q31):

NEW QUESTION # 26
Universal Containers (UC) environment management architect is using the package development model for deployment to different orgs.
Which metadata changes does the architect need to track manually?

A. Only the changes made via the Setup UI.
B. No manual tracking required. All changes are automatically tracked.
C. Changes to components not yet supported by source tracking.
D. All metadata changes for the release.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct selection is C. Source tracking removes much manual change management, but metadata types outside source-tracking coverage still require explicit tracking and deployment planning. Setup changes are not inherently manual if their metadata type is supported. From a build perspective, the implementation should be source-driven, reviewable, automatable, and modular. Engineering controls such as version control, package boundaries, static analysis, coding standards, and isolated development environments reduce defects early and make changes easier to understand, test, and promote. The rejected choices either rely on manual review alone, use the wrong development abstraction, or introduce custom complexity where Salesforce already provides a source-driven engineering mechanism. For this scenario, the decisive point is therefore the platform behavior represented by the selected option (C. Changes to components not yet supported by source tracking.). Applying that rule consistently keeps the implementation aligned with Salesforce-supported lifecycle practices and makes the resulting change easier to review, validate, and operate across environments.
Study Guide reference: Building - Salesforce DX; package development; coding standards; static analysis; source control; secure development.

NEW QUESTION # 27
Universal Containers (UC) has gone through a global organization restructuring and process review during the last year, which triggered a review of its Salesforce org strategy. After thorough analysis of its org and global customers, UC decided to start a project to merge its Salesforce orgs, going from a multi-org to a single-org strategy.
In this scenario, what are three benefits going to a single-org strategy?
Choose 3 answers

A. Easier to get a 360-view of the customer.
B. Automatically unify data model among all lines of business.
C. Consolidating the business processes would be simplified.
D. Improved Chatter collaboration across different business units.
E. Lower administration overhead costs.

Answer: A,D,E

NEW QUESTION # 28
Universal Containers (UC) is embarking on a large program of work, with different projects and different vendors. UC created a center of excellence (COE) that struggling with scope creep between the different projects.
What role should the architect suggest be added to the COE?

A. Scrum master
B. Release managers
C. Product owner
D. Change managers

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct selection is A. Scope creep across multiple projects and vendors requires formal change- management governance. A Change Manager establishes consistent intake, impact assessment, approval, communication, and cross-project coordination rather than leaving enterprise scope control to individual Scrum or release roles. From a planning perspective, the architect must reduce uncertainty before execution by defining ownership, governance, environment purpose, prioritization, and measurable acceptance criteria.
Decisions should be repeatable and visible across teams so delivery capacity, risk, and stakeholder expectations remain aligned throughout the lifecycle. The rejected options do not resolve the planning problem at its source; they either add process overhead or make assumptions that leave ownership and delivery risk unclear. For this scenario, the decisive point is therefore the platform behavior represented by the selected option (A. Change managers). Applying that rule consistently keeps the implementation aligned with Salesforce-supported lifecycle practices and makes the resulting change easier to review, validate, and operate across environments.
Study Guide reference: Planning - governance; agile planning; environment strategy; backlog prioritization; sandbox strategy; stakeholder alignment.

NEW QUESTION # 29
Which are two characteristics of an effective communication plan? Choose 2 answers

A. Requesting feedback for outstanding architectural questions
B. Communication to stakeholders on a "need -to -know" basis
C. Reporting project status, timelines, and impacts
D. Consistent communication to a pre -defined list of stakeholders

Answer: C,D

NEW QUESTION # 30
By to What three tools should an architect recommend to support application lifecycle methodology Choose 3 answers

A. Continuous integration tool
B. Issue tracking Ttool
C. Version control repository
D. Database management systems
E. Middleware

Answer: A,C

NEW QUESTION # 31
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