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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Threat Detection and Response | 20% | - Automated threat remediation - Real-time threat blocking - Incident response workflows - Forensic data collection - Event analysis and investigation |
| Topic 2: Policy Management and Security Profiles | 25% | - Exclusion configuration - Application control rules - Policy assignment and targeting - Custom policy creation and modification - Default security policies overview |
| Topic 3: FortiEDR Installation and Configuration | 25% | - Management Platform deployment - Collector Agent installation methods - Communication Manager setup - Pre-installation requirements and planning - Initial configuration and licensing |
| Topic 4: FortiEDR Architecture and Components | 20% | - Communication Manager and Cloud Console - FortiEDR core architecture overview - Collector Agent components and functionality - Management Platform architecture |
| Topic 5: Administration and Maintenance | 10% | - Log management and export - Upgrade and patch management - Backup and recovery procedures - System monitoring and diagnostics - User management and role-based access |
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NEW QUESTION # 26
Which two criteria are required for integrating FortiEDR with the Fortinet Security Fabric? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
For Fortinet Security Fabric correlation through FortiAnalyzer or FortiAnalyzer Cloud, the FortiEDR guide states that FortiEDR can integrate with FortiAnalyzer/FortiAnalyzer Cloud "to correlate data between FortiEDR and the Fortinet Security Fabric and issue eXtended detection alerts." To complete this, you must configure an eXtended Detection Source connector and enable eXtended Detection rules and FortiEDR Threat Hunting event collection.
The prerequisites include connectivity from the FortiEDR Central Manager to Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) . The same prerequisite list also requires either a FortiAnalyzer administrator account with JSON API access enabled or, for FortiAnalyzer Cloud, a valid FortiCloud API user with read/write access to the FortiAnalyzer Cloud portal.
Option B is wrong because a Forensics add-on license is not listed as a requirement for this integration.
Option D is badly worded and not correct. A Jumpbox with connectivity to FortiAnalyzer is required, and the guide points to FortiEDR Core setup for Jumpbox configuration, but the answer option says Core with core- only functionality , which is not the stated requirement.
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NEW QUESTION # 27
Which two statements correctly describe the IoT probing process on FortiEDR? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that IoT device discovery continuously identifies newly connected non-workstation devices, such as printers, cameras, and media devices. During discovery, each relevant Collector periodically probes nearby neighboring devices. The guide states that nearby devices usually respond by providing information about themselves, including the device/host name and IP address .
This directly supports option B .
Option C is also correct because the guide states that Collectors in degraded , disabled , or isolated states do not take part in the IoT probing process. It also says FortiEDR uses the most powerful Collectors in each subnet and excludes weaker Collectors, including disabled and degraded Collectors.
Option A is wrong because the guide explicitly says Collectors running on servers do not take part in IoT probing. Option D is wrong because IoT probing is not described as deep packet inspection of all neighboring traffic; it is a discovery/probing process used to identify nearby devices and collect basic device information.
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NEW QUESTION # 28
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which two observations are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows the incident classification as Malicious . In the Activity Audit, the entry from FortinetCloudServices states: "Classification change: Malicious" and also says the file is classified as malicious. This directly proves that FCS classified the event as malicious . The FortiEDR guide explains that the audit history shows the chronology for classifying the security event and displays details when FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) reclassifies a security event after its initial classification by the Core.
The exhibit also states that the file was "Detected as Unknown malware." This supports option D in the exam wording: FortiEDR/FCS has classified the file as malicious, but it is being identified as unknown malware , meaning it was not recognized as a known malware family/signature at the time of classification.
The guide explains that FCS enhances classification using data enrichment, automated and manual analysis, file analysis, sandboxing, machine learning flow analysis, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and other methods, so "unknown malware" can still be classified malicious by FCS.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit shows Malicious , not Suspicious. Option B is wrong because the incident status is Unhandled , not resolved or handled.
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NEW QUESTION # 29
You added three new applications to FortiEDR using only the Path attribute. What are two expected outcomes of this configuration? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that newly added applications are disabled by default , which means they are not blocked unless enabled. The guide further explains that the default state can be changed by enabling the Enable Default application state option in the Application Control Manager settings. Therefore, option A is correct.
Option B is also correct because Application Control allows an application to be defined by Hash or by any combination of File Name / Path / Signer . The guide says that the Path field specifies the path to the executable file of the application to be blocked. When using path-based matching, the enforcement is tied to the specified path criteria, not to every possible location of the same file.
Option C is wrong because the file name does not also need to match when only the Path attribute is used.
Option D is wrong because blocking all instances regardless of location applies when only the File Name field is used, not when the match is path-specific. The guide explicitly states that if only the File Name field is filled, the application is blocked no matter where the executable appears.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Within the FortiEDR architecture, which component needs JumpBox capabilities to enable authenticated and controlled communication with FortiAnalyzer? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Core.
For FortiAnalyzer / FortiAnalyzer Cloud integration, the FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that one prerequisite is "A Jumpbox with connectivity to FortiAnalyzer." The same section says to refer to Setting up the FortiEDR Core for details about installing a FortiEDR Core and configuring it as a Jumpbox. In the connector configuration, the guide also states that the Jumpbox field is used to select the FortiEDR Jumpbox that will communicate with FortiAnalyzer or FortiAnalyzer Cloud.
So, the FortiEDR component associated with JumpBox capability is the Core. The Central Manager must have connectivity to Fortinet Cloud Services, but it is not the component configured as the JumpBox. The Aggregator handles registration, configuration, and monitoring between Collectors/Cores and Central Manager, and the Reputation Server is unrelated to FortiAnalyzer JumpBox communication in this context.
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NEW QUESTION # 31
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