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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Incident Response and Management24%- Incident Handling and Investigation
  • 1. Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
  • 2. Evidence Collection and Forensic Fundamentals
  • 3. Incident Response Lifecycle and Frameworks
  • 4. Post-Incident Activities and Lessons Learned
Security Operations34%- Security Monitoring and Analysis
  • 1. Threat Detection and Threat Hunting
  • 2. SIEM Implementation and Analysis
  • 3. System and Network Architecture Security
  • 4. Endpoint, Network, and Cloud Monitoring
  • 5. SOAR, EDR, and XDR Concepts
Reporting and Communication16%- Documentation and Stakeholder Communication
  • 1. Risk Communication to Technical and Business Audiences
  • 2. Security Reporting and Documentation
  • 3. Incident Reporting Requirements and Compliance
Vulnerability Management26%- Vulnerability Assessment and Remediation
  • 1. Remediation Verification and Tracking
  • 2. Vulnerability Scanning and Assessment
  • 3. Vulnerability Prioritization and Risk Assessment
  • 4. Cloud and Container Security Vulnerabilities

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q188-Q193):

NEW QUESTION # 188
An incident response team investigates a possible data leak. Various IT systems collect evidence.
Which of the following processes is required to ensure that evidentiary artifacts are properly recorded?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Chain of custody is the formal process used to document the collection, possession, transfer, handling, analysis, and disposition of evidentiary artifacts. Its purpose is to establish an auditable history demonstrating who controlled the evidence, when custody changed, why it was transferred, and what actions were performed on it.
NIST defines chain of custody as tracking evidence throughout its collection, safeguarding, and analysis lifecycle while documenting each individual who handled it, relevant timestamps, and the purpose of transfers. This is critical when multiple systems, analysts, forensic teams, or external parties participate in an investigation because undocumented handling could undermine confidence in the evidence's integrity or admissibility.
Packaging and labeling are important evidence-preservation procedures, but they represent only individual activities within the broader evidence-management process. Storage and containment protect artifacts from alteration or unauthorized access but do not provide the complete historical record of possession. Post- incident reporting documents investigation conclusions and response actions after the incident rather than tracking evidence throughout its lifecycle.
The decisive phrase is "properly recorded." A defensible record of every evidence transfer and handler is specifically the function of chain of custody.
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Digital Forensics # Evidence Acquisition # Chain of Custody # Evidence Integrity # Documentation and Preservation.


NEW QUESTION # 189
An analyst receives the following output:

Which of the following is the correct number of discovered systems that are allowing unencrypted traffic?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The scan results identify two systems exposing services that permit communications without transport encryption, making B the correct count. The analyst must examine each discovered service rather than merely count open ports, because the security property being evaluated is whether the identified protocol transmits its session or application data without adequate encryption.
Common examples include HTTP instead of HTTPS, Telnet instead of SSH, and legacy FTP rather than protected file-transfer alternatives. The presence of an unencrypted service does not automatically prove that sensitive information is currently being transmitted, but it identifies a configuration that can expose credentials, commands, session content, or application data to interception when used.
The correct vulnerability-management workflow is to map discovered ports to services, determine the security characteristics of those protocols, verify whether encryption is available and enforced, and then prioritize remediation according to asset exposure and business requirements. Where possible, administrators should disable unnecessary cleartext services or replace them with cryptographically protected equivalents.
This question therefore tests interpretation of vulnerability or port-scan output , not simple arithmetic.
The two affected systems are those whose discovered services permit cleartext communications.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Scan Result Interpretation # Ports and Protocols # Cleartext Services # Encryption in Transit # Remediation and Secure Configuration.


NEW QUESTION # 190
During a routine review of DNS logs, a security analyst observes that Host X has been making frequent DNS requests to domains with random alphanumeric strings (e.g.. atd8ekthj.xyz). IPS anomaly rules are blocking these domains. This behavior started shortly after a new software Installation on the host. Which of the following should the analyst do first to determine whether Host X has been compromised?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Random, algorithmically generated domain names are a common indicator of malware using domain generation algorithms (DGAs). Checking the queried domains against threat intelligence is the fastest way to confirm whether they are malicious and whether the host is likely compromised.


NEW QUESTION # 191
An analyst receives the following output:

Which of the following is the correct number of discovered systems that are allowing unencrypted traffic?

Answer: D

Explanation:
TCP port 80 carries unencrypted HTTP traffic and is open on 10.203.20.15 and 10.203.20.10.
SSH on port 22 and HTTPS on port 443 are encrypted.


NEW QUESTION # 192
Which of the following allows an organization to leverage AI in various forms while protecting business objectives and data?

Answer: C

Explanation:
AI usage policies establish organizational boundaries for how artificial intelligence systems may be selected, accessed, configured, and used. They allow an organization to obtain operational benefits from AI while controlling risks involving confidential information, intellectual property, regulated data, model outputs, external AI services, and inappropriate automation. A strong policy can define approved platforms, prohibited data categories, validation requirements, human oversight, retention rules, acceptable use, and escalation procedures.
Prompt engineering is a technical method for constructing inputs that produce more useful model responses. It can improve output quality but does not establish enterprise-wide safeguards for protecting business objectives or sensitive information. A non-disclosure agreement establishes contractual confidentiality obligations between parties; it cannot govern the full technical and operational use of AI systems. An incident response policy determines how security incidents are managed and escalated, but it is reactive and not designed to establish routine AI governance.
CS0-004 explicitly addresses AI within Security Operations. The objectives identify AI risks including hallucinations, data exposure, model poisoning, and malicious prompts and identify governance considerations including legal or regulatory compliance and AI usage policies . AI use cases include log analysis, artifact comparison, incident investigation, event correlation, and automation.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # AI in Security Operations # AI Risks # Governance # AI Usage Policies # Data Protection.


NEW QUESTION # 193
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