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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Policy Management and Security Profiles | 25% | - Policy assignment and targeting - Application control rules - Default security policies overview - Exclusion configuration - Custom policy creation and modification |
| Topic 2: Threat Detection and Response | 20% | - Forensic data collection - Real-time threat blocking - Incident response workflows - Automated threat remediation - Event analysis and investigation |
| Topic 3: FortiEDR Architecture and Components | 20% | - Management Platform architecture - Communication Manager and Cloud Console - FortiEDR core architecture overview - Collector Agent components and functionality |
| Topic 4: Administration and Maintenance | 10% | - Backup and recovery procedures - User management and role-based access - System monitoring and diagnostics - Log management and export - Upgrade and patch management |
| Topic 5: FortiEDR Installation and Configuration | 25% | - Pre-installation requirements and planning - Management Platform deployment - Collector Agent installation methods - Initial configuration and licensing - Communication Manager setup |
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NEW QUESTION # 33
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which statement about this threat hunting query is true? (Choose one answer)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A .
The exhibit shows a FortiEDR Threat Hunting saved query using RemotePort:3389, scoped to a specific device, with Scheduled Query enabled, classification set to Suspicious , and a repeat interval of 15 minutes .
TCP port 3389 is the standard RDP port, so the query is designed to detect RDP-related network activity for the selected endpoint.
The FortiEDR guide states that saving a Threat Hunting query can define it as a scheduled query to automate threat detection. It further states that when a scheduled query runs and detects matches, a security event is automatically created in the Incidents tab , and notifications are sent according to the security event configuration.
Option B is too absolute and therefore wrong. The specific query shown uses a network field, but Threat Hunting itself can search activity events across files, registry, network, processes, and event logs. Option C is wrong because the Community Query checkbox is not selected, so it is not configured as a shared community
/global query. The guide states that Community Query must be selected to share the query with the FortiEDR community, including other organizations.
Option D is wrong because a scheduled Threat Hunting query generates an incident; it does not automatically block RDP unless additional playbook actions are configured. The guide says scheduled queries generate security events and may trigger configured playbook actions, but the query itself is not a blocking control.
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NEW QUESTION # 34
A playbook is configured to block a file hash on the network through the FortiGate connector, and then isolate the device that generated the malicious hash event.
What is the expected behavior if FortiGate is unreachable?
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 35
What specific action does FortiEDR take when the Zero Trust Device Tagging playbook is activated?
(Choose one answer)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is C.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that Identity Management integration can use FortiClient EMS. The connector requires API credentials or FortiCloud credentials depending on whether FortiClient EMS is on-premises or cloud-based. The guide states that for the out-of-the-box action, such as Zero Trust device tagging on FortiClient EMS, FortiEDR tags the device as non-trusted in the identity management system and specifies the classification tag to apply in the Tag name field.
The guide also lists predefined FortiClient EMS 7.2 or later fabric tags used by FortiEDR, including FortiEDR_Malicious, FortiEDR_PUP, FortiEDR_Suspicious, FortiEDR_Likely_Safe, and FortiEDR_Probably_Good. These tags are used by FortiClient EMS to tag the endpoint based on FortiEDR classification.
Finally, the guide states that to configure the automated response, the administrator must go to Security Settings > Playbooks, open the relevant Playbook policy, and place a checkmark in the relevant classification column next to the Zero Trust device tagging row under Remediation. FortiEDR is then configured to automatically tag a device as non-trusted when a security event is triggered.
Options A, B, and D are wrong. FortiEDR does not remove unmanaged endpoints, does not apply a default tag to every endpoint, and does not disable the endpoint merely until a tag is assigned. The action is API- based FortiClient EMS tagging tied to FortiEDR event classification
NEW QUESTION # 36
A collector triggers a suspicious security incident that is initially flagged as potentially malicious. The environment is connected to the FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) for classification. How does FCS process the event for accurate classification? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) enriches and enhances system security by performing deep, thorough analysis and investigation about the classification of a security event. It determines the exact classification of security events with a high degree of accuracy.
The guide further explains that the FCS classification process is performed through data enrichment and enhanced deep analysis and investigation enabled by automated and manual processes . These processes may include intelligence services, static and dynamic file analysis, sandboxing, flow analysis through machine learning, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and more.
Therefore, FCS does not rely only on FortiGate firewall policies, local signatures, or raw Collector log correlation. It performs enriched cloud-based automated and manual analysis to classify the incident accurately.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 37
You added three new applications to FortiEDR using only the Path attribute. What are two expected outcomes of this configuration? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that newly added applications are disabled by default , which means they are not blocked unless enabled. The guide further explains that the default state can be changed by enabling the Enable Default application state option in the Application Control Manager settings. Therefore, option A is correct.
Option B is also correct because Application Control allows an application to be defined by Hash or by any combination of File Name / Path / Signer . The guide says that the Path field specifies the path to the executable file of the application to be blocked. When using path-based matching, the enforcement is tied to the specified path criteria, not to every possible location of the same file.
Option C is wrong because the file name does not also need to match when only the Path attribute is used.
Option D is wrong because blocking all instances regardless of location applies when only the File Name field is used, not when the match is path-specific. The guide explicitly states that if only the File Name field is filled, the application is blocked no matter where the executable appears.
NEW QUESTION # 38
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