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Comptia PK0-005 인증 시험은 초보자부터 숙련 된 프로젝트 관리자에 이르기까지 모든 수준의 전문가에게 적합합니다. 시험은 90 개의 객관식 및 성능 기반 질문으로 구성되며, 후보자는 90 분이 지정되어 완료합니다. 시험은 영어, 일본어 및 포르투갈어를 포함한 여러 언어로 제공됩니다. 인증은 전 세계적으로 인정되며 IT 산업 내에서 널리 존중됩니다.
CompTIA PK0-005 시험은 전 세계적으로 인정되며 산업에서 매우 존경받는 시험입니다. 전문가들이 프로젝트 관리 기술을 자랑하고 독보적으로 빛나는 훌륭한 방법입니다. 또한 이 인증은 벤더 중립적이기 때문에 특정 기술이나 제품에 결합되지 않습니다. 이는 다양한 산업과 조직에 적용할 수 있는 매우 다재다능한 인증으로 만들어줍니다. 전반적으로, CompTIA PK0-005 시험은 프로젝트 관리 기술을 향상시키고 이 분야에서 경력을 발전시키고자 하는 전문가들에게 훌륭한 인증입니다.
Pass4Test 의 학습가이드에는CompTIA PK0-005인증시험의 예상문제, 시험문제와 답입니다. 그리고 중요한 건 시험과 매우 유사한 시험문제와 답도 제공해드립니다. Pass4Test 을 선택하면 Pass4Test 는 여러분을 빠른시일내에 시험관련지식을 터득하게 할 것이고CompTIA PK0-005인증시험도 고득점으로 패스하게 해드릴 것입니다.
CompTIA PK0-005 자격증 시험은 프로젝트 관리 기술을 향상시키거나 프로젝트 관리 분야에서의 경력을 시작하고자 하는 개인들에게 탁월한 선택입니다. 이 자격증은 후보자의 프로젝트 관리 기술과 지식을 검증하며, 프로젝트를 성공적으로 관리할 수 있는 능력을 증명합니다. 이 자격증을 취득하고자 하는 경우, 오늘부터 시험 준비를 시작하는 것을 권장합니다.
질문 # 275
A project team has just experienced an unexpected event and implemented a work-around. Which of the
following documents should be used to record the event? (Select TWO).
정답：E,F
설명：
Issue log and change log are documents that should be used to record the event where the project team has just
experienced an unexpected event and implemented a work-around. An issue log is a document that tracks and
records any issues or problems that arise during a project and how they are resolved. An issue log can help to
monitor and control the project performance and quality and prevent any negative impacts on the project
objectives and deliverables. A change log is a document that tracks and records any changes or modifications
that are made to the project scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources during a project. A change log can help
to document the change request, approval, implementation, and impact of each change and ensure traceability
and transparency.
질문 # 276
A project scheduler updates the project status with the following information: SPI = 1.25 and CPI = 0.85.
Which of the following can the project manager infer about the current project status?
정답：B
질문 # 277
A project manager and team are currently in the planning phase of a project. Which of the following should
the team do during this phase?
정답：D
설명：
The project manager and team should review assumptions and constraints for input to the risk register during
the planning phase of a project. Assumptions are statements that are considered to be true for the purpose of
planning, but may or may not be valid in reality. Constraints are factors that limit the project scope, time, cost,
quality, or resources. Both assumptions and constraints can introduce risks to the project, which are uncertain
events or conditions that can have a positive or negative impact on the project objectives. The risk register is a
document that records the identified risks, their causes, impacts, probabilities, responses, owners, and
status. Reviewing assumptions and constraints can help the project manager and team identify, analyze,
prioritize, and plan for the potential risks that may affect the project12.
The other options are not the correct activities that the team should do during the planning phase of a project.
Identifying and assessing stakeholders (option A) is an activity that is done during the initiating phase of a
project, not the planning phase. Stakeholders are individuals or groups that have an interest or influence in the
project, and their identification and assessment is important to define the project scope, objectives, and success
criteria, and to establish a communication plan12. Holding daily status meetings (option B) is an activity that
is done during the executing and monitoring and controlling phases of a project, not the planning phase. Daily
status meetings are short and frequent meetings where the project team members report on their progress,
issues, and plans for the next day. Daily status meetings can help the project manager track the project
performance, resolve problems, and communicate updates12. Removing access and planning the project
sign-off (option C) is an activity that is done during the closing phase of a project, not the planning phase.
Removing access is a security measure to ensure that the project resources do not have access to the project
systems, data, or assets after the project is completed. Planning the project sign-off is a process to obtain the
formal acceptance and approval of the project deliverables from the stakeholders and customers12.
질문 # 278
A project team selected a random sample of patient accounts for testing the deliverable. The data was masked since it contained patient names. Which of the following describes this type of data?
정답：C
설명：
Personally identifiable information (PII) is any data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate a specific individual, either alone or combined with other sources. PII includes information such as name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, etc. Patient names are examples of PII, and therefore the data that contains them should be masked or anonymized to protect the privacy and security of the patients. Confidential information, protected health information, and security clearance are not types of data, but rather categories or levels of data sensitivity that may require different degrees of protection or access control. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Planning, Section 3.4: Data Privacy and Security, p. 121; Patient Data: Types, Uses & Hospital Patient Databases; What is Patient Data and Why Is It Important?; Chapter 1 - Registrar Playbook
질문 # 279
Which of the following would be considered operational security?
정답：A
설명：
Operational security (OPSEC) is a process that prevents sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands by viewing operations from the perspective of an adversary1. Facility access is a form of OPSEC that controls who can enter and exit a physical location where sensitive data or equipment is stored or processed. Facility access can include measures such as locks, alarms, badges, biometrics, guards, and cameras. The other options are not correct because:
Mobile device compliance is a policy that ensures that mobile devices used by employees or contractors meet certain security standards and requirements, such as encryption, password protection, antivirus, and remote wipe. Mobile device compliance is not a form of OPSEC, but rather a form of data security or device management.
Background screening is a process that checks the criminal, financial, and employment history of a potential employee or contractor before hiring them. Background screening is not a form of OPSEC, but rather a form of human resource management or risk mitigation.
Multifactor authentication is a method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity before accessing a system or service, such as a password, a code, a token, or a biometric. Multifactor authentication is not a form of OPSEC, but rather a form of access control or identity management. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Executing and Closing Projects, page 314; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Project Execution, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, execute and monitor project tasks using traditional methodologies; What is Operational Security? The Five-Step Process, Best Practices, and More
질문 # 280
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