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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Security Operations | 33% | - Automation and orchestration
|
| Incident Response Management | 20% | - Incident response lifecycle
|
| Reporting and Communication | 17% | - Security awareness and training
|
| Vulnerability Management | 30% | - Cloud and virtual environment vulnerabilities
|
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NEW QUESTION # 351
A high volume of failed RDP authentication attempts was logged on a critical server within a one- hour period. All of the attempts originated from the same remote IP address and made use of a single valid domain user account. Which of the following would be the most effective mitigating control to reduce the rate of success of this brute-force attack?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Enabling a user account lockout policy is a security measure that can effectively mitigate brute- force attacks. After a predetermined number of consecutive failed login attempts, the account will be locked, preventing the attacker from continuing to try different password combinations. This control directly addresses the issue of multiple failed attempts from the same IP address using a single user account, making it the most effective among the options provided.
NEW QUESTION # 352
A security operations center receives the following alerts related to an organization ' s cloud tenant:
Which of the following should an analyst do first to identify the initial compromise?
Answer: A
Explanation:
To identify the initial compromise , the analyst should start with the earliest suspicious activity in the timeline and pivot into the audit logs for the principal (identity) associated with that first alert.
Here, the first notable event is 02:00 excessive API failures tied to jdoe12@myorg.com . That commonly indicates password guessing, token misuse, or other authentication abuse attempts. The next events (02:15 metadata service access, 05:10 mass VM creation by a service account, 05:40 malware) look like follow-on activity after an initial foothold. Therefore, the best first step is to check whether those API failures were followed by any successful API calls by that user and then correlate those successful actions to the later stages in project staging-01 .
This approach aligns with CySA+ guidance that analysts should use logs + timestamps to build a timeline and correlate events across identities/systems to understand scope and progression:
* Sybex emphasizes correlating events from multiple sources and using that correlation to determine scope and impact: Exact extract (Sybex Study Guide): "Security analysts are often asked to help analyze that data... Knowing if other events are correlated with the initial event ... [and] understanding what systems, users, services, or other assets were involved..."
* Secbay underscores that logs and timestamps are key to forming an accurate incident timeline (which is exactly what we're doing by starting from the earliest alert): Exact extract (Secbay Press): " System and application logs with timestamps help create a timeline of events , aiding in understanding when specific actions occurred during the incident." Why Option B is best vs. the others
* B starts with the earliest suspicious identity and seeks successful API activity that would confirm compromise and explain subsequent actions (metadata access # service account actions # malware).
* A is too broad initially ("all activity under project staging-01") and anchors on a VM that only appears later; it's not the best first pivot when you already have an earlier suspect identity.
* C starts at the compute-instance phase (05:10) rather than the earliest authentication/API anomaly (02:
00), so it's more likely to find post-compromise actions rather than the initial entry.
* D anchors on a specific later VM (fd031f) and compute APIs, again likely after the initial compromise.
References (CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 documents / study guides used):
* Mike Chapple & David Seidl, CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide (CS0-003) : correlate other events with the initial event; identify involved users/systems/services
* Secbay Press, CompTIA CySA+ Exam Prep Guide (CS0-003) : logs + timestamps build a timeline of events and support analysis of incident progression
NEW QUESTION # 353
A security analyst runs the following command:
# nmap -T4 -F 192.168.30.30
Starting nmap 7.6
Host is up (0.13s latency)
PORT STATE SERVICE
23/tcp open telnet
443/tcp open https
636/tcp open ldaps
Which of the following should the analyst recommend first to harden the system?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:The nmap scan results show that Telnet (port 23) is open. Telnet transmits data, including credentials, in plaintext, which is insecure and should be disabled to enhance security. Here's an explanation of each option:
A). Disable all protocols that do not use encryption
Disabling unencrypted protocols (such as Telnet) reduces exposure to man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks and credential sniffing. Telnet should be replaced with a secure protocol like SSH, which provides encryption for transmitted data.
B). Configure client certificates for domain services
While client certificates enhance authentication security, they are more relevant to services like LDAP over SSL (port 636), which is already secure. This would not address the Telnet vulnerability.
C). Ensure that this system is behind a NGFW
A Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) provides enhanced network security, but it may not mitigate the risks of unencrypted protocols if they are allowed internally.
D). Deploy a publicly trusted root CA for secure websites
Public root CAs are used for website authentication and encryption, relevant only if this system is hosting a publicly accessible HTTPS service. It would not impact Telnet security.
References:
CIS Controls: Recommendations on secure configurations, especially the use of encrypted protocols.
NIST SP 800-47: Security considerations for network protocols, emphasizing encrypted alternatives like SSH over Telnet.
NEW QUESTION # 354
In SIEM software, a security analysis selected some changes to hash signatures from monitored files during the night followed by SMB brute-force attacks against the file servers Based on this behavior, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST to prevent a more serious compromise?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 355
A company patches its servers using automation software. Remote SSH or RDP connections are allowed to the servers only from the service account used by the automation software. All servers are in an internal subnet without direct access to or from the internet. An analyst reviews the following vulnerability summary:
Which of the following vulnerability IDs should the analyst address first?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The vulnerability with the highest CVSS score and an active exploit is Microsoft CVE-2021-34527 (PrintNightmare). Although only present on two instances, its high severity (8.4) and exploitable nature make it a priority. PrintNightmare is a well-known remote code execution vulnerability, which can be a critical risk.
According to CompTIA CySA+ and vulnerability management practices, prioritizing based on severity and exploitability is essential, even over the number of instances. Other vulnerabilities listed are less severe or lack active exploitation.
NEW QUESTION # 356
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