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| Certification Vendor: | Zscaler |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate (ZTCA) Exam |
| Exam Number: | ZTCA |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Exam Price: | USD 300 |
| Real Exam Qty: | 75 |
| Related Certifications: | Zscaler Digital Transformation Engineer (ZDTE) Zscaler Zero Trust Cloud courses (EDU learning paths) Zscaler Digital Transformation Administrator (ZDTA) Zscaler Zero Trust Automation |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Recommended Training: | Zscaler Cyber Academy ZTCA Learning Path Zscaler Zero Trust Program Resources |
| Exam Registration: | Zscaler Certification Portal Zscaler Cyber Academy |
| Sample Questions: | Zscaler ZTCA Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online proctored or online assessment (availability may vary by region and training channel) |
| Pre Condition: | Basic knowledge of networking and cybersecurity fundamentals recommended |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://customer.zscaler.com/page/certification-exam |
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NEW QUESTION # 37
What types of attributes can be used to assess whether access is risky? (Select 2)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and D . In Zero Trust architecture, risk is determined from multiple contextual signals , not from a single static attribute. Zscaler's architecture guidance states that policy decisions evaluate the user, machine, location, group, and more , which directly supports the use of device posture as a risk input. Device posture factors such as domain membership, certificate presence, endpoint protection tools like antivirus or endpoint detection and response (EDR), and disk encryption status are strong indicators of whether the device can be trusted for a given access request.
Behavioral patterns are also valid risk indicators. Zero Trust does not look only at who the user is; it also considers how that user and device are behaving over time. Repeated blocked malware downloads, blocked phishing attempts, and similar negative security events can indicate elevated risk and justify tighter policy enforcement on future requests. By contrast, the operating system alone is too narrow to be the best answer, and Layer 3 device API scanning is not the access-risk attribute model being tested here. Therefore, the strongest Zero Trust choices are device posture analysis and behavioral risk patterns .
NEW QUESTION # 38
Identifying and proving the who value, that is, who is the initiating entity, is usually a function of a government agency.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. False . In Zero Trust architecture, identifying and validating who is making a request is normally handled through enterprise identity systems , not by a government agency. Zscaler's authentication architecture explains that authentication credentials and identity responses from an Identity Provider (IdP) are the first step in determining which policies should apply. Those responses can include the user's identity, groups, and department, which are then used in policy enforcement.
ZPA guidance also shows that SAML and SCIM attributes from the identity provider are used to support application access policy. This means the "who" value is typically proven through the organization's identity stack, such as an IdP, directory service, or integrated authentication platform, not through an external government authority.
While government-issued identity documents may be part of a hiring or registration process in some organizations, that is not how Zero Trust runtime identity verification is generally performed. In practice, the
"who" is established through enterprise-controlled authentication and context systems. Therefore, the statement is false.
NEW QUESTION # 39
What are some of the outputs of dynamic risk assessment?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A . In Zero Trust architecture, dynamic risk assessment produces decision-support outputs that help determine how each access request should be handled. Zscaler's identity and policy guidance explains that policy decisions are made by evaluating factors such as the user, device, location, group, and more to determine which policies apply. This means the output of risk assessment is not a packet capture or an operational maintenance workflow; it is the contextual information used to classify the request and enforce the appropriate control outcome.
This aligns closely with the idea of categories, criteria, and insights attached to an access request.
Categories help classify the transaction or destination, criteria define which conditions are being evaluated, and insights provide the context needed to allow, restrict, deceive, isolate, or block. By contrast, a full PCAP is a troubleshooting artifact, not a core policy output. Backup and restore processes are administrative operations, and ML-based application segmentation is a separate discovery or segmentation capability rather than the direct output of dynamic risk assessment. Therefore, the best Zero Trust answer is that dynamic risk assessment produces contextual outputs tied to each access request so policy enforcement can be precise and adaptive.
NEW QUESTION # 40
What is the ultimate goal of policy enforcement?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. State a conditional allow or a conditional block. In Zero Trust architecture, policy enforcement exists to make a specific access decision for a specific request based on current context. That context includes identity, device posture, location, application sensitivity, risk, and other relevant factors. The outcome is not a permanent trust label, and it is not merely an operational log or reporting artifact. Instead, the core purpose of enforcement is to apply the correct control result to that single request.
This is why Zero Trust policy is often described as conditional . An access request may be allowed, blocked, isolated, restricted, or otherwise controlled depending on the risk and business rules in effect at that moment.
The critical point is that the decision is dynamic and context-driven , not static. Logs may be generated as a byproduct, but logging is not the ultimate goal. Likewise, Zero Trust does not treat users as permanently trusted or untrusted. The architecture assumes continuous evaluation. Therefore, the best answer is that policy enforcement ultimately produces a conditional allow or conditional block outcome for each access request.
NEW QUESTION # 41
In a Zero Trust architecture, should applications that you manage have any exposed inbound listeners?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A . A major principle of Zero Trust architecture is that managed applications should not be broadly discoverable or openly reachable in the way legacy internet-facing services often are. Access should be limited only to explicitly authorized initiators , and all other visibility and reachability should be denied. This reduces attack surface, prevents opportunistic scanning, and limits exposure to exploitation attempts before authentication and policy evaluation occur.
Zero Trust does not assume that a firewall alone is sufficient protection for an exposed application. Instead, it seeks to minimize or eliminate unnecessary public exposure in the first place. Likewise, requiring the user to be on the same network is a legacy network-trust model, not a Zero Trust principle. The correct model is that access is granted only after identity and context are verified and policy allows it .
So while an application may technically listen for approved brokered access, it should not be openly visible to unauthorized users or the general internet. Therefore, the best answer is that inbound access should be available only to permitted initiators , while all other access and visibility are denied.
NEW QUESTION # 42
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