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| Certification Vendor: | IIBA |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Certificate in Cybersecurity Analysis (CCA) Exam |
| Exam Number: | IIBA-CCA |
| Passing Score: | Not published; result shown as Pass/Fail |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice, Knowledge-based, Competency-based |
| Exam Duration: | 90 minutes |
| Real Exam Qty: | 75 |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Exam Price: | $250 (IIBA Member), $400 (Non-Member) |
| Recommended Training: | IIBA CCA Exam Handbook IIBA Endorsed Education Providers |
| Exam Registration: | PSI Exam Scheduling IIBA Official Registration |
| Sample Questions: | IIBA IIBA-CCA Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online remote proctored exam |
| Pre Condition: | No formal prerequisites; recommended background in business analysis or IT |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.iiba.org/business-analysis-certifications/certificate-in-cybersecurity-analysis/ |
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NEW QUESTION # 12
What is defined as an internal computerized table of access rules regarding the levels of computer access permitted to login IDs and computer terminals?
Answer: C
Explanation:
An Access Control List (ACL) is a structured, system-maintained list of authorization rules that specifies who or what is allowed to access a resource and what actions are permitted. In many operating systems, network devices, and applications, an ACL functions as an internal table that maps identities such as user IDs, group IDs, service accounts, or even device/terminal identifiers to permissions like read, write, execute, modify, delete, or administer. When a subject attempts to access an object, the system consults the ACL to determine whether the requested operation should be allowed or denied, enforcing the organization's security policy at runtime.
The description in the question matches the classic definition of an ACL as a computerized table of access rules tied to login IDs and sometimes the originating endpoint or terminal context. ACLs are central to implementing discretionary access control and are also widely used in networking (for example, permitting or denying traffic flows based on source/destination and ports) and file systems (controlling access to folders and files).
An Access Control Entry (ACE) is only a single line item within an ACL (one rule for one subject). A "Relational Access Database" is not a standard security control term for authorization tables. A "Directory Management System" manages identities and groups, but it is not the same as the enforcement list attached to a specific resource. Therefore, the correct answer is Access Control List.
NEW QUESTION # 13
Violations of the EU's General Data Protection Regulations GDPR can result in:
Answer: A
Explanation:
The GDPR establishes a regulatory penalty framework intended to make privacy and data-protection obligations enforceable across organizations of any size. Under GDPR, the most severe administrative fines can reach up to €20 million or up to 4% of the organization's total worldwide annual turnover of the preceding financial year, whichever is higher. That "whichever is greater" clause is critical: it prevents large enterprises from treating privacy violations as a minor cost of doing business and ensures the sanction can scale with the organization's economic size and risk impact.
Cybersecurity governance and risk documents typically emphasize GDPR as a driver for enterprise risk management because the consequences extend beyond monetary fines. A confirmed violation often triggers regulatory investigations, mandatory corrective actions, and potential restrictions on processing activities. Organizations may also face indirect impacts such as breach notification costs, legal claims from affected individuals, reputational harm, loss of customer trust, and increased oversight by regulators and auditors.
From a controls perspective, GDPR penalties reinforce the need for strong security and privacy-by-design practices: data minimization, lawful processing, documented purposes, retention controls, encryption where appropriate, access control and least privilege, monitoring and incident response readiness, and evidence-based accountability through policies, records, and audit trails. Selecting option C correctly reflects GDPR's maximum fine structure and its risk-based deterrence model.
NEW QUESTION # 14
Information classification of data is a level of protection that is based on an organization's:
Answer: B
Explanation:
Information classification is the practice of assigning data a sensitivity level so the organization can apply protections that match the business impact if the information is exposed, altered, or becomes unavailable. The core driver for classification is the risk of harm-especially harm caused by unauthorized disclosure. If disclosure would result in regulatory penalties, reputational damage, competitive disadvantage, contractual breach, or harm to customers and employees, the data is classified at a higher level and requires stronger controls. These controls commonly include tighter access restrictions (least privilege and role-based access), stronger authentication, encryption at rest and in transit, stricter handling and sharing rules, audit logging, monitoring, and secure disposal requirements.
While retention can be influenced by compliance obligations, it is not what determines the classification level; retention policies typically reference classification but do not define it. "Need for access" is managed through access control decisions, which are applied after the data's sensitivity is understood; classification informs who should have access, not the other way around. "Timing of availability" relates to availability requirements and service resilience, which are important, but classification schemes primarily focus on sensitivity and potential damage from inappropriate exposure, with integrity and availability considerations often handled as additional impact dimensions.
Therefore, the best verified basis for information classification is the organization's assessment of risk of loss or harm from disclosure.
NEW QUESTION # 15
ITIL Information Technology Infrastructure Library defines:
Answer: C
Explanation:
ITIL is a widely adopted framework that defines best-practice guidance for IT Service Management. Its focus is on how organizations design, deliver, operate, and continually improve IT services so they reliably support business outcomes. In cybersecurity and service delivery documentation, ITIL is often referenced because strong service management processes are foundational to secure operations. For example, ITIL practices such as incident management, problem management, change enablement, configuration management, and service continuity help ensure security controls are implemented consistently and that deviations are identified, tracked, and corrected.
ITIL does not define how hardware systems interface securely with one another; that is more aligned with architecture standards, security engineering, and network or platform design frameworks. It also does not prescribe a universal set of components for every technology system; that belongs to reference architectures and enterprise architecture standards. Likewise, ITIL is not primarily a security requirements standard. While ITIL supports security governance through practices like risk management, access management, and information security management integration, it does not itself serve as a mandatory security control catalog.
From a cybersecurity perspective, ITIL contributes by promoting repeatable processes, clear roles and responsibilities, measurable service levels, and continual improvement. These elements reduce operational risk, improve response effectiveness, and strengthen accountability-key requirements for maintaining confidentiality, integrity, and availability in production environments.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Other than the Requirements Analysis document, in what project deliverable should Vendor Security Requirements be included?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security requirements in an RFP typically cover topics such as secure development practices, vulnerability management, patching and support timelines, encryption for data at rest and in transit, identity and access controls, audit logging, incident notification timelines, subcontractor controls, data residency and retention, penetration testing evidence, compliance attestations, and right-to-audit provisions. The RFP also enables objective scoring by requesting documented evidence such as security certifications, control descriptions, and responses to standardized security questionnaires.
A training plan and business continuity plan are operational deliverables and do not drive vendor selection criteria. A project charter sets scope and governance at a high level, but it is not the primary procurement artifact for binding vendor security obligations. Therefore, the correct answer is Request For Proposals.
NEW QUESTION # 17
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