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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:CompTIA
Exam Name:CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam
Exam Number:CAS-005
Exam Price:$512 - $544 USD
Certificate Validity Period:3 years
Related Certifications:CompTIA Network+
CompTIA PenTest+
CompTIA Cloud+
CompTIA CySA+
CompTIA Security+
Exam Format:Multiple-choice, Performance-based
Passing Score:Pass/Fail only, no scaled score
Available Languages:English, Japanese, Thai
Exam Duration:165 minutes
Real Exam Qty:Up to 90
Recommended Training:CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
CompTIA Official Training
Exam Registration:Pearson VUE Registration
CompTIA Official Registration
Sample Questions:CompTIA CAS-005 Sample Questions
Exam Way:Online proctored or in-person at Pearson VUE authorized test centers
Pre Condition:No mandatory prerequisites; Recommended: 10+ years of general IT experience, minimum 5 years of hands-on cybersecurity experience, equivalent knowledge to CompTIA Network+, Security+, CySA+, PenTest+, or Cloud+
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.comptia.org/certifications/securityx

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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.
Topic 2
  • Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.
Topic 3
  • Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
Topic 4
  • Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.

CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q310-Q315):

NEW QUESTION # 310
A company hired an email service provider called my-email.com to deliver company emails. The company started having several issues during the migration. A security engineer is troubleshooting and observes the following configuration snippet:

Which of the following should the security engineer modify to fix the issue? (Choose two.)

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:
Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to
192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is required. Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.
TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include .com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.
DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.


NEW QUESTION # 311
A company designs policies and procedures for hardening containers deployed in the production environment.
However, a security assessment reveals that deployed containers are not complying with the security baseline.
Which of the following solutions best addresses this issue throughout early life-cycle stages?

Answer: D

Explanation:
SecurityX CAS-005 secure DevOps guidance recommends integrating security controls into the CI/CD pipeline. By validating container security baselines at security gates before deployment, noncompliant builds are stopped early, ensuring consistency across environments.
* Option B is useful but does not ensure compliance if changes are made after image creation.
* Option A detects drift but only after deployment.
* Option D is reactive and does not prevent insecure deployments.


NEW QUESTION # 312
Third parties notified a company's security team about vulnerabilities in the company's application. The security team determined these vulnerabilities were previously disclosed in third-party libraries. Which of the following solutions best addresses the reported vulnerabilities?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best solution to address reported vulnerabilities in third-party libraries is integrating a Static Application Security Testing (SAST) tool as part of the development pipeline. Here's why:
* Early Detection: SAST tools analyze source code for vulnerabilities before the code is compiled. This allows developers to identify and fix security issues early in the development process.
* Continuous Security: By integrating SAST tools into the CI/CD pipeline, the organization ensures continuous security assessment of the codebase, including third-party libraries, with each code commit and build.
* Comprehensive Analysis: SAST tools provide a detailed analysis of the code, identifying potential vulnerabilities in both proprietary code and third-party dependencies, ensuring that known issues in libraries are addressed promptly.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* OWASP Static Analysis Security Testing (SAST) Cheat Sheet
* NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations


NEW QUESTION # 313
A company's security policy states that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released A recent llS zero-day vulnerability was discovered that affects all versions of the Windows Server OS:

Which of the following hosts should a security analyst patch first once a patch is available?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the security analyst should patch Host 1 first. Here's why:
* Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.
* Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.
* Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies
* CIS Controls: Control 3 - Continuous Vulnerability Management


NEW QUESTION # 314
A company plans to implement a research facility with Intellectual property data that should be protected The following is the security diagram proposed by the security architect

Which of the following security architect models is illustrated by the diagram?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The security diagram proposed by the security architect depicts a Zero Trust security model. Zero Trust is a security framework that assumes all entities, both inside and outside the network, cannot be trusted and must be verified before gaining access to resources.
Key Characteristics of Zero Trust in the Diagram:
Role-based Access Control: Ensures that users have access only to the resources necessary for their role.
Mandatory Access Control: Additional layer of security requiring authentication for access to sensitive areas.
Network Access Control: Ensures that devices meet security standards before accessing the network.
Multi-factor Authentication (MFA): Enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification.
This model aligns with the Zero Trust principles of never trusting and always verifying access requests, regardless of their origin.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-207, "Zero Trust Architecture"
"Implementing a Zero Trust Architecture," Forrester Research


NEW QUESTION # 315
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