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FINRA SIE Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Employee Conduct and Reportable Events: This section of the exam measures the skills of Financial Compliance Specialists and covers regulatory expectations regarding employee conduct and disclosure requirements. Candidates must be familiar with Form U4 and Form U5, as well as reporting obligations for outside business activities and political contributions.
Topic 2
  • Market Structure: This section of the exam measures the skills of Equity Market Specialists and covers the classification of financial markets, including the primary, secondary, third, and fourth markets. Candidates must demonstrate knowledge of electronic trading, over-the-counter (OTC) markets, and physical exchanges. One specific skill tested is differentiating between various market types and their operational mechanisms.
Topic 3
  • Understanding Trading, Customer Accounts, and Prohibited Activities: This section of the exam measures the skills of Securities Traders and focuses on different trading strategies, settlement processes, and corporate actions. Candidates must demonstrate knowledge of order types, including market, limit, stop, and good-til-canceled orders, as well as bid-ask spreads and discretionary versus non-discretionary trading.
Topic 4
  • Regulatory Entities, Agencies, and Market Participants: This section of the exam measures the skills of Financial Regulatory Analysts and covers the structure, authority, and jurisdiction of key regulatory bodies overseeing financial markets. The SEC's role in enforcing securities regulations is assessed, along with the authority of self-regulatory organizations such as FINRA and MSRB. Candidates must also understand the functions of other financial regulators, including the Department of the Treasury and state regulatory agencies. One key skill evaluated is identifying the jurisdictional scope of different financial regulators.
Topic 5
  • Overview of the Regulatory Framework: This section of the exam measures the skills of Compliance Officers and evaluates knowledge of self-regulatory organization (SRO) requirements, including registration and continuing education for associated persons. Candidates must understand the distinction between registered and non-registered individuals and the requirements for maintaining industry qualifications.

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SIE Reliable Exam Syllabus, New SIE Test Format

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FINRA Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) Sample Questions (Q49-Q54):

NEW QUESTION # 49
A customer purchased $80,000 of Fund XYZ two years ago. He now wants to buy $50,000 of Fund LMN offered within the same fund family, which offers a $100,000 breakpoint under right of accumulation. Which of the following statements is true?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* Right of Accumulation: Allows an investor to combine the value of existing investments within the same fund family to qualify for a breakpoint (reduced sales charge) on new purchases.
* Current Holdings: $80,000
* New Purchase: $50,000
* Total: $130,000, qualifying for the $100,000 breakpoint.
* Incorrect Options:
* B: Contributions from all funds within the same family can be aggregated.
* C: A new letter of intent is unnecessary; right of accumulation applies automatically.
* D: Discounts apply immediately, not retroactively.
FINRA Guidance on Breakpoints: FINRA Breakpoints.


NEW QUESTION # 50
SEC regulations permit a company to issue securities exempted from registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 under which of the following conditions?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* Regulation D (Rule 506(b)): Allows offerings to an unlimited number of accredited investors and up to
35 non-accredited investors, provided certain disclosure requirements are met.
* Incorrect Options:
* A: Refers to Regulation S, which governs offshore offerings, not domestic exemptions.
* B: There is no 40-investor limit in Regulation D.
* C: The $5 million limit applies to Rule 504, not Rule 506(b).
:
SEC Regulation D: SEC Regulation D.


NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following risks is most prevalent in callable bonds?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Reinvestment risk. Callable bonds give the issuer the right to redeem (call) the bond before maturity, typically when interest rates decline. This feature creates a specific risk for investors.
Step-by-step, when interest rates fall, issuers are more likely to call their bonds and refinance at lower rates.
When this happens, investors receive their principal back earlier than expected. The problem is that they must then reinvest those funds at lower prevailing interest rates, which reduces their overall return. This is known as reinvestment risk.
Callable bonds are particularly exposed to this risk because they are often called precisely when it is least favorable for investors-when yields in the market are lower than the bond's original coupon rate.
Choice A, market risk, affects all securities and is not unique to callable bonds. Choice B, political risk, applies mainly to foreign investments. Choice C, liquidity risk, relates to the ease of buying or selling a bond and is not the defining risk of callable bonds.
Thus, the most significant and characteristic risk associated with callable bonds is reinvestment risk, making Answer D correct.


NEW QUESTION # 52
A registered representative who is terminated from a broker-dealer must notify FINRA of a residential address change for what period of time after termination?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* FINRA Rule 1122: Requires that registered representatives update their residential address with FINRA for two years post-termination.
* Purpose: This ensures accurate records for potential regulatory inquiries during the statutory two-year period when a terminated individual remains subject to FINRA's jurisdiction.
References:
* FINRA Rule 1122 (Filing False or Misleading Information): FINRA Rule 1122.


NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following portfolios is diversified across asset classes?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Diversification across asset classes means allocating capital among different broad categories of investments, such as equities, fixed income, cash equivalents, real estate, or alternatives. A portfolio containing both equity and fixed income securities is diversified across asset classes because common stocks and bonds have different risk-return profiles, income characteristics, volatility patterns, and sensitivity to economic conditions. Choice A is not diversified across asset classes because regional bank stocks are concentrated in one industry and one geographic region. Choice C is diversified by maturity within one asset class- municipal bonds-but it remains a fixed income portfolio. Choice D has exposure to different types of real estate properties, but REITs remain primarily a real estate equity sector exposure, not broad asset-class diversification. The SIE outline includes "Strategies for Mitigation of Risk," specifically "Diversification," and also identifies core product categories such as equity securities, debt instruments, REITs, and packaged products. The exam distinction is whether diversification is across sectors, maturities, issuers, or true asset classes. Only choice B clearly crosses asset classes. Reference: Section 2.1 Products; Section 2.2 Investment Risks, strategies for mitigation of risk.


NEW QUESTION # 54
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