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>> CCDS-O Exam Questions Pdf <<
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NEW QUESTION # 122
In which of the following ways does payment determination (risk score calculation) differ between HHS-HCCs and CMS-HCCs?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A key ambulatory CDI distinction between the two major risk models is timing. The HHS-HCC model (used for ACA Marketplace risk adjustment) is commonly described as a concurrent model: it uses the enrollee's demographics and diagnoses from the same benefit year to reflect morbidity and support that year's risk transfer/payment balancing. In contrast, the CMS-HCC model (commonly applied in Medicare Advantage) is prospective: conditions documented and coded in the prior data collection year are used to predict expected cost for the following payment year. From an outpatient CDI perspective, this timing difference affects operational priorities. For CMS-HCC, accurate annual capture and recapture of active chronic conditions is essential because last year's documented conditions drive next year's risk score and revenue. For HHS-HCC, complete documentation and coding during the current year impacts the current year's risk measurement. Options referencing CPT codes are not correct for the core HCC risk score calculation, which is driven by demographics and ICD diagnosis reporting mapped to HCC categories.
NEW QUESTION # 123
Clinic documentation states: "Follow-up for post-induction chemotherapy for metastatic uterine cancer." To BEST identify the conditions being monitored and treated, a CDI specialist should
Answer: D
Explanation:
When documentation states "metastatic uterine cancer," the most important missing element for complete, accurate outpatient coding is where the cancer has metastasized (the secondary site[s]). In ambulatory CDI, identifying secondary sites best clarifies the full scope of disease being monitored and treated because metastatic disease coding relies on documenting both the primary malignancy and the specific metastatic location(s) (e.g., lung, liver, bone, peritoneum, lymph nodes). This supports correct severity representation, risk capture, treatment intent, and medical necessity for ongoing chemotherapy follow-up. While tumor morphology can be clinically relevant, it is usually established earlier in the diagnostic pathway and does not, by itself, define current metastatic burden. Likewise, reviewing labs or MRI results may provide supportive indicators, but they do not replace provider documentation of the confirmed metastatic sites being managed. A compliant query focused on secondary sites prompts the provider to document the current metastatic disease status (active, responding, progressing) and specific locations, which most directly identifies the conditions under treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 124
A patient is seen in the office for a persistent cough. Provider documentation states: "History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, and hypertension. Hypertension treated with Enalapril. Cough an adverse effect of the ACE inhibitor; discontinue Enalapril. COPD stable. Instructed to continue meds for COPD/asthma." Which of the following diagnoses should be reported for this encounter?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Outpatient diagnosis reporting requires coding conditions that are evaluated, assessed, treated, or that influence care/management at the encounter. The chief reason for the visit is the persistent cough, which is assessed and attributed to an adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor (enalapril). For outpatient coding of medication adverse effects, the documentation supports reporting both the manifestation (cough) and the adverse effect of the drug (ACE inhibitor adverse effect), because the provider identified the causal relationship and changed therapy by discontinuing enalapril. In addition, the provider addresses chronic conditions that are clinically relevant to the visit: COPD is assessed as "stable" and the patient is instructed to continue COPD/asthma medications, demonstrating ongoing management. Hypertension also remains relevant because medication therapy is adjusted due to the adverse effect; the patient still has HTN even though one agent is discontinued. Therefore, all five items-cough, ACE inhibitor adverse effect, COPD, asthma, and hypertension-are supported and should be reported, making option D the most appropriate.
NEW QUESTION # 125
A patient presents to the clinic with indwelling Foley catheter, symptoms of fatigue, and low back pain with BPH. Labs reveal WBC 20, and the urine culture is positive for E. coli. Prescription antibiotics are ordered for a UTI. Which of the following is the BEST query opportunity?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The strongest CDI query opportunity is clarifying whether the UTI is catheter-associated. The patient has an indwelling Foley catheter, significant leukocytosis (WBC 20), a positive urine culture for E. coli, and is being treated with antibiotics for UTI-these indicators raise a clear question about the etiology of infection and whether it is related to the urinary catheter. In outpatient CDI practice, linking the infection to a device (when clinically supported) improves documentation accuracy, supports correct code assignment, and has important quality and compliance implications because catheter-associated UTIs are captured differently than uncomplicated UTIs. By comparison, querying the "etiology of BPH" is not supported as an immediate gap (BPH is already stated), and the "etiology of low back pain" is less directly tied to the documented treatment focus (UTI management). "Leukocytosis" is a lab finding that is already objectively supported and often represents a symptom/abnormal result rather than the principal clarification needed. Therefore, confirming whether the UTI is related to the Foley catheter is the best, most clinically anchored query.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Provider documentation states: "Type 2 Diabetes with bilateral peripheral arteriosclerotic disease of LE. Bilateral pedal pulses present. Review Hgb A1C and CBC. No change in treatment. Hypertension evaluated and well controlled on Lopressor." Which of the following conditions should be coded?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The documentation explicitly links the conditions by stating "Type 2 Diabetes with bilateral peripheral arteriosclerotic disease of LE," which supports a diabetic circulatory manifestation rather than "diabetes without complications." In outpatient CDI chart review, the word "with" and clear provider linkage allow coding of diabetes "with peripheral angiopathy" (a diabetes complication category) when peripheral arterial/arteriosclerotic disease is documented as associated. In addition, best practice is to code both the diabetes complication category and the specific manifestation when supported, because the manifestation (atherosclerosis of the lower extremities, bilateral) further describes the clinical condition being evaluated. Hypertension is also evaluated and managed ("well controlled on Lopressor"), meeting outpatient reporting expectations for an active condition addressed during the encounter. Option D is incorrect because it double-counts the same concept-peripheral angiopathy already represents a circulatory complication, so adding a separate "diabetes with circulatory complication" statement is redundant rather than additive. Therefore, the correct coding set includes diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, the bilateral lower-extremity atherosclerosis manifestation, and hypertension.
NEW QUESTION # 127
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