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>> Clearer CAS-005 Explanation <<
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NEW QUESTION # 234
After an incident response exercise, a security administrator reviews the following table:
Which of the following should the administrator do to beat support rapid incident response in the future?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Enabling dashboards for service status monitoring is the best action to support rapid incident response. The table shows various services with different risk, criticality, and alert severity ratings. To ensure timely and effective incident response, real-time visibility into the status of these services is crucial.
Why Dashboards for Service Status Monitoring?
Real-time Visibility: Dashboards provide an at-a-glance view of the current status of all critical services, enabling rapid detection of issues.
CentralizedMonitoring: A single platform to monitor the status of multiple services helps streamline incident response efforts.
Proactive Alerting: Dashboards can be configured to show alerts and anomalies immediately, ensuring that incidents are addressed as soon as they arise.
Improved Decision Making: Real-time data helps incident response teams make informed decisions quickly, reducing downtime and mitigating impact.
Other options, while useful, do not offer the same level of comprehensive, real-time visibility and proactive alerting:
A . Automate alerting to IT support for phone system outages: This addresses one service but does not provide a holistic view.
C . Send emails for failed log-in attempts on the public website: This is a specific alert for one type of issue and does not cover all services.
D . Configure automated isolation of human resources systems: This is a reactive measure for a specific service and does not provide real-time status monitoring.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
"Best Practices for Implementing Dashboards," Gartner Research
NEW QUESTION # 235
Which of the following key management practices ensures that an encryption key is maintained within the organization?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step
Understanding the Scenario: The question is about ensuring that an organization retains control over its encryption keys. It focuses on different key storage and management methods.
Analyzing the Answer Choices:
A . Encrypting using a key stored in an on-premises hardware security module (HSM): This is the best option for maintaining complete control over encryption keys. An HSM is a dedicated, tamper-resistant hardware device specifically designed for secure key storage and cryptographic operations. Storing keys on-premises within an HSM ensures the organization has exclusive access.
Reference:
B . Encrypting using server-side encryption capabilities provided by the cloud provider: With server-side encryption, the cloud provider typically manages the encryption keys. This means the organization is relinquishing some control over the keys.
C . Encrypting using encryption and key storage systems provided by the cloud provider: Similar to option B, using cloud-provider-managed key storage systems means the organization doesn't have full, exclusive control over the keys.
D . Encrypting using a key escrow process for storage of the encryption key: Key escrow involves entrusting a third party with a copy of the encryption key. This introduces a potential security risk, as the organization no longer has sole control over the key. Also, the key is not maintained within the organization.
Why A is the Correct answer:
Control: On-premises HSMs provide the highest level of control over encryption keys. The organization has physical and logical control over the HSM and the keys stored within it.
Security: HSMs are designed to be tamper-resistant and protect keys from unauthorized access, even if the surrounding systems are compromised.
Compliance: In some industries, regulatory requirements may mandate that organizations maintain direct control over their encryption keys. On-premises HSMs can help meet these requirements.
CASP+ Relevance: HSMs, key management, and data encryption are fundamental topics in CASP+. The exam emphasizes understanding the security implications of different key management approaches.
Elaboration on Key Management Principles:
Key Lifecycle Management: Proper key management involves managing the entire lifecycle of a key, from generation and storage to rotation and destruction.
Separation of Duties: It's generally a good practice to separate the roles of key management and data encryption to enhance security.
Access Control: Strict access controls should be in place to limit who can access and use encryption keys.
In conclusion, using an on-premises HSM for key storage is the best way to ensure that an organization maintains control over its encryption keys. It provides the highest level of security and control, aligning with best practices in cryptography and key management as emphasized in the CASP+ exam objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 236
A malware researcher has discovered a credential stealer is looking at a specific memory register to harvest passwords that will be used later for lateral movement in corporate networks. The malware is using TCP 4444 to communicate with other workstations. The lateral movement would be best mitigated by:
Answer: B
Explanation:
The malware uses TCP 4444 to move laterally between systems. A host-based firewall can block unauthorized communication ports (like TCP 4444) on each workstation, preventing malware from establishing connections and spreading. Configuring the CPU's NX bit and enabling ASLR primarily help in mitigating memory-based exploits, not in stopping lateral movement. Enabling UEFI ensures boot integrity but does not mitigate active lateral communication. An edge firewall would protect the network perimeter, not internal workstation-to-workstation communication.
NEW QUESTION # 237
A threat intelligence company's business objective is to allow customers to integrate data directly to different TIPs through an API. The following additional requirements must also be met:
- Reduce compute spend as much as possible.
- Ensure availability for all users.
- Reduce the potential attack surface.
- Ensure the integrity of the data provided.
Which of the following best meets the requirements?
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 238
A security analyst isreviewing the following event timeline from an COR solution:
Which of the following most likely has occurred and needs to be fixed?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The event timeline indicates a sequence where a file (hr-reporting.docx) was saved, scanned, executed, and eventually found to contain malware. The critical issue here is that the malware scan completed after the file was already executed. This suggests a Time-Of-Check to Time-Of-Use (TOCTOU) vulnerability, where the state of the file changed between the time it was checked and the time it was used.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses TOCTOU vulnerabilities as a timing attack where the state of a resource changes after it has been validated.
NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations": Recommends addressing TOCTOU vulnerabilities to ensure the integrity of security operations.
"The Art of Software Security Assessment" by Mark Dowd, John McDonald, and Justin Schuh: Covers logic flaws and timing vulnerabilities, including TOCTOU issues.
NEW QUESTION # 239
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