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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Airway, Respiration and Ventilation | - Airway Management
|
| Topic 2: Trauma | - Trauma Assessment and Care
|
| Topic 3: EMS Operations | - Operational Procedures
|
| Topic 4: Medical, Obstetrics and Gynecology | - Obstetrics and Gynecology
|
| Topic 5: Cardiology and Resuscitation | - Cardiac Emergencies
|
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At BraindumpStudy, we strive hard to offer a comprehensive Emergency Medical Technicians Exam (EMT) exam questions preparation material bundle pack. The product available at BraindumpStudy includes NREMT EMT Real Dumps pdf and mock tests (desktop and web-based). Practice exams give an experience of taking the Emergency Medical Technicians Exam (EMT) actual exam.
NEW QUESTION # 118
A 3-year-old patient ingested laundry detergent. The patient is drowsy and has crackles in all lung fields. What should most concern the EMT at this time? Select the three answer options that are correct.
Answer: A,E,F
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Laundry detergent ingestion - especially in the case ofliquid detergent pods- is associated withcaustic airway and gastrointestinal injuries. The presence ofcracklesanddrowsinessare signs of aspiration and possiblerespiratory failure. Vomiting increases the risk ofaspiration pneumonitis, andesophageal perforationis a life-threatening complication from corrosive ingestion.
While seizure and hypoglycemia are possible complications of toxic ingestion, they are not as immediately linked to the detergent profile as airway injury and aspiration risk.
References:
NREMT Pediatric Toxicology and Airway Emergencies
National Poison Data System (NPDS) Annual Report
AAOS Emergency Care Textbook (11th ed.) - Pediatric Poisoning and Toxin Exposure
NEW QUESTION # 119
A 27-year-old patient reports trouble breathing after being struck by a car. Which of the following findings are indicative of a possible chest wall injury? Select the three answer options that are correct.
Answer: C,E,F
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Clavicle deformity suggests potential rib or thoracic trauma. Unequal chest rise may indicate a flail segment, pneumothorax, or hemothorax. Subcutaneous emphysema, the presence of air under the skin, is a classic finding in pneumothorax or tracheobronchial injury.
Occipital depression is not chest related; epigastric distension is a GI symptom; and jugular vein distention would suggest tension pneumothorax or cardiac tamponade, which are more advanced complications.
References:
NREMT Trauma Assessment Guidelines
National EMS Education Standards - Chest Injuries
AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation (11th ed.), Chapter: Chest and Abdominal Trauma
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following is associated with neurogenic shock?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Peripheral vasodilation.
Why D is correct (Peripheral vasodilation):
Neurogenic shock occurs due to loss of sympathetic nervous system tone, usually from a spinal cord injury.
This leads to:
Widespread peripheral vasodilation
Pooling of blood in the extremities
Decreased venous return
Hypotension
Additionally, patients often present with:
Warm, dry skin (unlike other shock types)
Bradycardia (due to unopposed parasympathetic tone)
NREMT-aligned guidance states:
"Neurogenic shock results from loss of sympathetic tone leading to vasodilation."
"Peripheral vasodilation causes hypotension and inadequate perfusion."
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Central vasodilation: Not a recognized defining feature; neurogenic shock primarily affects peripheral vessels.
B). Peripheral vasoconstriction: Seen in hypovolemic shock, not neurogenic shock.
C). Central vasoconstriction: Not associated with neurogenic shock.
Exact Extracts:
"Neurogenic shock is caused by loss of sympathetic tone."
"This results in widespread peripheral vasodilation."
"Patients may present with hypotension and bradycardia."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Medical Emergencies (Shock)
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Shock and Resuscitation Prehospital Emergency Care (EMT) - Shock Management
NEW QUESTION # 121
A 24-year-old patient was involved in an MVC. The EMT is completing the patient care report. Which of the following statements indicate pertinent negatives? Select the two correct options.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Pertinent negativesare findings that arenot present, butwould be clinically relevant if they were. For example:
* "No neck or back pain"helps rule out spinal injury
* "No loss of consciousness"informs head trauma assessment
Statements about behavior or initial refusal (B, E) may be documented under patient behavior or refusal, but they are not pertinent negatives. Positive findings like abdominal tenderness arepertinent positives.
References:
NREMT Documentation Standards
National EMS Education Standards - Communication and Documentation
Brady Emergency Care (13th ed.) - Patient Care Reporting
NEW QUESTION # 122
An EMT is on the scene of a possible terrorist attack. A victim has excessive oral secretions, is urine and bowel incontinent, and begins to vomit. What should the EMT administer?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Atropine auto-injector.
This patient is exhibiting classic signs of organophosphate or nerve agent poisoning, commonly summarized by the mnemonic SLUDGE:
* Salivation (excessive oral secretions)
* Lacrimation
* Urination (incontinence)
* Defecation (bowel incontinence)
* Gastrointestinal distress (vomiting)
* Emesis
These findings strongly indicate exposure to a cholinergic (nerve) agent, which is a concern in terrorist incidents.
Why Atropine is correct:
* Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that blocks the effects of excessive acetylcholine.
* It is the primary antidote for organophosphate/nerve agent poisoning.
* EMTs may administer it via auto-injector (e.g., DuoDote or Mark I kit) in hazardous materials or terrorism situations.
NREMT-aligned guidance states:
* "Organophosphate poisoning presents with excessive secretions and incontinence."
* "Treatment includes administration of atropine to counteract cholinergic effects." Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Epinephrine auto-injector: Used for anaphylaxis, not cholinergic poisoning.
* B. Naloxone auto-injector: Used for opioid overdose (respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils), not excessive secretions.
* C. Activated charcoal: Used for certain ingested toxins, not effective for nerve agent exposure and contraindicated with vomiting.
Exact Extracts (NREMT-aligned EMT educational references):
* "SLUDGE: salivation, urination, defecation, GI distress, emesis."
* "Atropine is used to treat organophosphate poisoning."
* "Nerve agents cause excessive cholinergic stimulation."
Clinical Priority Summary:
The patient's symptoms clearly indicate nerve agent exposure, and the appropriate treatment is atropine, making D the correct answer.
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - EMS Operations (Hazardous Materials / Terrorism) NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured (NREMT-aligned)
NEW QUESTION # 123
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