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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Coding and Reporting, the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS), and provider coding
Topic 2
  • Diseases and Disease Processes and Application to the Clinical Chart Review: Covers clinical indicators across all ICD-10-CM chapters, applied to chart reviews, with recognition of medications, diagnostic tests, and abbreviations as documentation clarification triggers.
Topic 3
  • Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the Official Guidelines for
Topic 4
  • Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA
  • MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.
Topic 5
  • CDI Program Concepts: Department Metrics and Provider Education: Covers provider education development, CDI performance metrics including query rates, RAF progression, HCC capture, ACO
  • MSSP impact, and physician documentation's effect on quality reporting.

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q53-Q58):

NEW QUESTION # 53
The primary purpose of the RADV program is to

Answer: B

Explanation:
RADV (Risk Adjustment Data Validation) is a CMS audit program used in Medicare Advantage to confirm that diagnoses submitted for risk adjustment are supported by medical record documentation and meet reporting requirements. Its central aim is payment integrity-ensuring that risk-adjusted capitation payments to Medicare Advantage organizations are accurate based on valid, documented conditions. In outpatient CDI practice, RADV risk underscores why documentation must clearly support each reported diagnosis (e.g., condition evaluated/assessed/treated, clinically relevant, and properly documented by an eligible provider), because unsupported diagnoses can lead to payment recoupment and compliance exposure. RADV is not designed to assess medical necessity of the services provided (that is typically addressed through utilization review and other payer audits), nor is it focused on identifying overpayments to individual physicians (it targets plan-level risk adjustment payments). It also is separate from E/M leveling accuracy, which is governed by CPT/E/M guidelines and distinct audit processes. Therefore, the best definition of RADV's primary purpose is ensuring the integrity and accuracy of risk-adjusted payments.


NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following actions should be taken when the documentation states: "Hemiparesis, history of CVA, and intracranial trauma?"

Answer: B

Explanation:
This documentation presents a key outpatient CDI problem: hemiparesis is present, but two potential causal conditions are referenced-history of CVA and intracranial trauma-without clear linkage. In ICD-10-CM, correct reporting of hemiparesis often depends on identifying whether it is a late effect (sequela) of a prior stroke, a residual from traumatic brain injury, or due to another neurologic condition. Coding hemiparesis automatically as a CVA sequela (option A) would be assumptive and potentially inaccurate, because the clinician has not documented the relationship. Likewise, simply coding hemiparesis alone (option D) may miss important etiologic specificity, and coding both histories without clarifying the cause (option B) still leaves the main clinical ambiguity unresolved. Outpatient CDI best practice is to issue a non-leading query requesting provider clarification of the etiology/source of the hemiparesis (e.g., due to prior CVA, due to prior intracranial trauma, both, or other/undetermined). This supports accurate diagnosis reporting, appropriate sequencing, and defensible risk/quality representation.


NEW QUESTION # 55
In a year over year comparison, the total number of patients with the more specific diagnosis of morbid obesity versus unspecified obesity increased from 10,000 patients to 11,000 patients. Which of the following is the hypothetical increase in yearly reserve for that patient population? (Morbid obesity HCC value = 0.186 and PMPM = $800.00)

Answer: B

Explanation:
This question applies the outpatient risk adjustment "reserve" concept: predicted cost is estimated by multiplying the member's risk factor contribution by a baseline per-member-per-month (PMPM) amount, then annualizing. The morbid obesity HCC factor is 0.186, and PMPM is $800. First compute the monthly cost impact: $800 × 0.186 = $148.80 per month per patient. Convert to yearly: $148.80 × 12 = $1,785.60 per patient per year. The year-over-year increase in patients with morbid obesity documentation is 11,000 - 10,000 = 1,000 additional patients. Multiply the annual per-patient impact by the additional patient count: $1,785.60 × 1,000 = $1,785,600. Outpatient CDI programs emphasize that improving documentation specificity (when clinically supported) can change whether an HCC is captured, which can affect RAF-based projections and resource planning. However, documentation must still be accurate, supported, and reflect conditions assessed/managed during the encounter.


NEW QUESTION # 56
Given the following CMS-HCC categories, which is the correct order (highest to lowest) in the hierarchy?

Answer: B

Explanation:
In the CMS-HCC model, certain disease groupings are arranged in hierarchies so that when multiple related conditions are reported for the same patient, only the most severe (highest-ranked) HCC in that hierarchy is counted for risk adjustment. This prevents "double counting" of clinically related conditions that represent the same underlying burden of illness. The cancer-related HCCs in the 35-38 range are an example of this hierarchical design: if a patient has diagnoses that map to more than one of these HCCs, the model retains the highest-ranked category and suppresses the lower ones. Therefore, the correct hierarchy order is from the most severe category (HCC 35) down sequentially through HCC 36, HCC 37, and HCC 38. From an outpatient CDI perspective, this reinforces why accuracy and specificity matter: documentation should clearly establish the most clinically severe, active, and treated condition so the correct (highest) HCC is captured, rather than relying on nonspecific or less severe descriptors that could under-represent patient complexity.


NEW QUESTION # 57
A patient is evaluated in the primary care clinic for chest pain, slight shortness of breath, and mild nausea. Documentation includes an ECG and chest x-ray to rule out MI. Which of the following diagnoses are reportable?

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the outpatient/ambulatory setting, ICD-10-CM reporting rules applied in CDI education distinguish clearly between confirmed diagnoses and "uncertain" or "rule out" conditions. Terms such as "rule out," "suspected," or "probable" generally are not coded as established diagnoses in the outpatient record because the encounter is often for evaluation and testing rather than definitive confirmation. Instead, coders report the patient's presenting signs and symptoms when a definitive condition has not been documented as confirmed by the provider. Here, the clinician ordered diagnostic testing (ECG and chest x-ray) specifically to rule out myocardial infarction (MI), but no final diagnosis of MI or angina is documented in the scenario. Therefore, "rule out MI" is not reportable, and neither is acute MI or angina unless explicitly diagnosed. The reportable conditions are the symptoms that drove the visit and required evaluation: chest pain (captured as "other chest pain" in the options), shortness of breath, and nausea.


NEW QUESTION # 58
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