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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Leader (Manager)
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NEW QUESTION # 58
A 29-year-old woman presents with vaginal spotting after 6 weeks of amenorrhea. She is asymptomatic otherwise. Serum #-hCG is 2150 IU/L, and pelvic ultrasound shows an empty uterus. She has been trying to conceive for 7 months. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
An empty uterus with #-hCG >1500-2000 IU/L raises concern for a pregnancy of unknown location (PUL), including the possibility of ectopic pregnancy. However, the patient is hemodynamically stable and asymptomatic. In such cases, the best initial step is to repeat serum #-hCG in 48 hours to assess the rise or fall of hCG levels.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, "First Trimester Bleeding":
"If #-hCG >1500 IU/L and no intrauterine pregnancy is visualized on ultrasound, repeat #-hCG in 48 hours to determine rise or decline. A suboptimal rise (less than 66%) suggests ectopic pregnancy." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 79-1: Early Pregnancy Complications):
"In a patient with early pregnancy bleeding, the candidate must interpret quantitative #-hCG trends to distinguish ectopic pregnancy, miscarriage, or viable intrauterine pregnancy." Immediate administration of methotrexate or invasive procedures such as D&C or laparoscopy are not appropriate until further diagnostic clarification is obtained.
NEW QUESTION # 59
You are called to the Emergency Department to see a 6-month-old boy with a 3-day history of fever. Physical examination reveals an irritable infant with a temperature of 38.1°C. His vital signs are:
Blood pressure: 87/50 mm Hg
Respiratory rate: 80/min
Heart rate: 140/min
Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air
The infant has no skin findings. On chest examination, you hear coarse crackles on the right side of the chest.
Which one of the following is the best next step in the management of this child?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This 6-month-old presents with signs of systemic illness, tachypnea, hypoxia, and focal lung findings. In this age group, pneumonia can rapidly progress, and given the severity of symptoms, oral treatment is insufficient.
Intravenous antibiotics are urgently indicated.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Respiratory Infections in Infants:
"Infants under 6 months with signs of systemic illness, hypoxia (SpO2 < 94%), and respiratory distress should receive IV antibiotics. Delayed treatment may result in rapid clinical deterioration." MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Respiratory Conditions:
"Candidates must recognize signs of serious lower respiratory tract infection in infants and initiate prompt IV antibiotic therapy when criteria for hospitalization are met." Oral antibiotics (C) are appropriate for mild outpatient pneumonia. Reassurance (B) and oral steroids (A) are inappropriate. IV fluids (D) may be supportive but do not address the infectious cause.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A 25-year-old nulligravida woman presents after trying to conceive for 2 years without success. She is healthy, with regular menstrual periods. She denies any unusual hair growth, weight changes, or breast discharge. She gets occasional outbreaks of acne. Blood work done with her next menstrual period produces the following results:
Follicle-stimulating hormone, follicular phase: 6.2 U/L (5.0-20.0) on day 3 of menstrual cycle Luteinizing hormone, follicular phase: 6 U/L (5-22) on day 3 of menstrual cycle Estradiol: 163 pmol/L (50-200) on day 15 of menstrual cycle Thyrotropin (thyroid-stimulating hormone): 2.5 mU/L (0.4-5.0) Prolactin: 40 µg/L (4-30) Given the results of her blood work, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient meets the definition of infertility (no conception after 12 months; here 2 years). Her day-3 FSH
/LH and mid-cycle estradiol are within expected ranges, and TSH is normal, making thyroid disease unlikely.
The key abnormality is elevated prolactin (40 µg/L) . MCCQE objectives emphasize identifying reversible endocrine causes of infertility: hyperprolactinemia can impair fertility by disrupting hypothalamic GnRH pulsatility and ovulatory function, and treatment improves pregnancy rates. The appropriate next management is a dopamine agonist (e.g., bromocriptine) to lower prolactin and restore normal reproductive axis function.
Pituitary MRI is generally reserved for marked or persistent elevations suggestive of prolactinoma (often much higher levels) or when there are neurologic symptoms (e.g., headaches, visual field defects). IVF is not first-line when a treatable endocrine abnormality is present. Mammography is unrelated to mild hyperprolactinemia without breast findings. Treating the elevated prolactin addresses a likely contributor before proceeding to more invasive fertility interventions.
NEW QUESTION # 61
A mother brings her previously healthy 4-month-old girl for evaluation due to fussiness for 3 weeks. The infant becomes irritable and cries with occasional body arching 1-2 hours after feeding, frequently spits up after feeds, has developed feeding aversion, and shows slowing weight gain. She has been on cow's milk- based formula since birth. Stools are normal, and physical examination is unremarkable. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 62
A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of dysuria and right flank pain. Upon arrival, she is quite unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 70/38 mm Hg, heart rate
130/min, respiratory rate 24/min, temperature 39.4 °C.
Due to difficulty obtaining peripheral access, a central line is inserted. There is a lot of ongoing bleeding around the line insertion site. Her blood work shows:
White blood cell count: 19.8 × 10#/L (4-10)
Hemoglobin: 101 g/L (123-157)
Platelets: 85 × 10#/L (130-400)
Blood film: schistocytes
INR: 1.9 (0.9-1.2)
Fibrinogen: < 1 g/L (2-4)
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her ongoing bleeding?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient is in septic shock, likely from pyelonephritis, with hypotension, tachycardia, and fever. Her laboratory findings demonstrate thrombocytopenia (platelets 85 × 10#/L), elevated INR, very low fibrinogen (
< 1 g/L), and schistocytes on blood film, along with active bleeding from the central line site. These findings are classic for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing DIC as a complication of severe sepsis. In DIC, systemic activation of coagulation leads to widespread microthrombi formation and consumption of platelets and clotting factors (consumptive coagulopathy), resulting in both thrombosis and bleeding. Low fibrinogen and prolonged INR are key distinguishing features.
ITP causes isolated thrombocytopenia without coagulation abnormalities. TTP presents with thrombocytopenia and schistocytes but typically has normal coagulation studies. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia requires prior heparin exposure and does not cause elevated INR or low fibrinogen.
Vitamin K deficiency causes prolonged INR but does not produce thrombocytopenia or schistocytes.
Thus, DIC secondary to sepsis is the most likely cause of her bleeding.
NEW QUESTION # 63
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